Is the Jacobian Equal to the Quotient of Scale Factors?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the relationship between the Jacobian and scale factors in multivariable calculus. The formula presented, \(\frac{\partial(q_1 , q_2 , q_3)}{\partial (x, y, z)} = h_1 h_2 h_3\), indicates that the Jacobian can be computed using scale factors \(h_1, h_2, h_3\). The query posed is whether the equation \(\frac{\partial(q_1 , q_2 , q_3)}{\partial (Q_1, Q_2, Q_3)} = \frac{h_1 h_2 h_3}{H_1 H_2 H_3}\) holds true, leading to the conclusion that the Jacobian is not definitively equal to the quotient of scale factors but rather a definition that requires context.

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Jhenrique
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In somewhere in wikipedia, I found a "shortcut" for compute the jacobian, the formula is: \frac{\partial(q_1 , q_2 , q_3)}{\partial (x, y, z)} = h_1 h_2 h_3 where q represents the coordinate of other system and h its factor of scale.

I know that this relationship is true. What I'd like of know is if this equation below is true: \frac{\partial(q_1 , q_2 , q_3)}{\partial (Q_1, Q_2, Q_3)} = \frac{h_1 h_2 h_3}{H_1 H_2 H_3} where Q represents the coordinate of another system and H its factor of scale.

Is correct to affirm that the jacobian is equal to the quotient between the scale factors?
 
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What you did is to invent a definition of \frac{\partial(q_1 , q_2 , q_3)}{\partial (Q_1, Q_2, Q_3)} . It is not true nor false: it is a definition.
 

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