B Is the level-set for a given function unique?

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The discussion centers on the uniqueness of level sets for functions defined from R² to R. It argues that if two functions, f and g, have identical level sets, then they must be equivalent, meaning f is equal to g. The author emphasizes that knowing the level sets alone does not uniquely identify the function without the corresponding values. They express concern about the informal use of terms in mathematics, highlighting the importance of precise definitions. Ultimately, the conversation seeks clarity on whether level sets can uniquely define a function in R².
Eclair_de_XII
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TL;DR
Assume that I've only taken math courses up until Calculus III. Informal definition is as follows:

Let ##f:\mathbb{R}^2\longrightarrow\mathbb{R}## be defined. Then the level set of ##f## w.r.t. some point ##z\in f(\mathbb{R}^2)## is the set of points ##(x,y)## in the ##xy##-plane with the property that ##f(x,y)=z##.
Let ##f,g:\mathbb{R}^2\longrightarrow\mathbb{R}## be defined, and denote ##D=f(\mathbb{R}^2)##. Assume without loss of generality that ##g(\mathbb{R}^2)\equiv f(\mathbb{R}^2)##.

Define a function ##\varphi_f:D\longrightarrow \mathbb{R}^2## as follows: ##\varphi_f(z)=\{(x,y):f(x,y)=z\}##, and define ##\varphi_g## similarly. Let ##z\in D##. Suppose that ##\varphi_g\equiv\varphi_f##. Then ##\{(x,y):f(x,y)=z\}=\{(x,y):g(x,y)=z\}##. In other words, the point ##z## associates the functions ##f,g## to the same exact points ##(x,y)## in ##\mathbb{R}^2##.

Hence, for every ##(x,y)\in \varphi_f(z)##:

\begin{eqnarray*}
(x,y,f(x,y))=(x,y,g(x,y))\\
(0,0,(f-g)(x,y))=(0,0,0)
\end{eqnarray*}

It follows then, that ##f\equiv g##.

This isn't actually a proof; I'm just asking a question that I cannot find an answer to on the internet. This is just a rudimentary explanation of why I think level sets are unique in ##\mathbb{R}^2##.
 
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I think this is right. If you are given all the level sets, along with the value f takes on each of them, f is clearly uniquely defined as given any point (x,y), it must be contained inside a single level set, and then f(x,y) is uniquely determined.

I have typically seen the word "level set" to refer to just the sets of (x,y) without z attached. For example ##f(x,y)=x^2+y^2## has circles as its level sets. Just being told the level sets are circles is *not* sufficient to uniquely identify the function.
 
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This is not a proof that the level sets are unique. If anything is as an attempted proof that the level sets uniquely define a function.
Lesson #1 in math after Calc III: "Informal" definitions and proofs are dangerous. You have to be careful with your words.
 
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