Is the Lie derivative of a smooth vector field equal to the Lie bracket field?

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    2015
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SUMMARY

The Lie derivative of a smooth vector field \(Y\) along another smooth vector field \(X\) on a smooth manifold \(M\) is defined as \(\mathcal{L}_XY = \frac{d}{dt}\bigg|_{t=0} \phi_{-t*}Y\). This discussion establishes that the Lie derivative \(\mathcal{L}_XY\) is equal to the Lie bracket field \([X,Y]\). This equivalence is crucial for understanding the behavior of vector fields in differential geometry.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of smooth manifolds
  • Familiarity with vector fields
  • Knowledge of the flow of a vector field
  • Concept of Lie derivatives and Lie brackets
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of Lie derivatives in differential geometry
  • Explore the applications of Lie brackets in dynamical systems
  • Learn about the flow of vector fields and its implications
  • Investigate the relationship between Lie derivatives and curvature in Riemannian geometry
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Mathematicians, particularly those specializing in differential geometry, theoretical physicists, and students studying vector fields and their applications in various mathematical contexts.

Euge
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Here is this week's POTW:

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Let $M$ be a smooth manifold, $X, Y$ smooth vector fields on $M$, and $\phi_t$ the flow of $X$. The Lie derivative of $Y$ along $X$, $\mathcal{L}_XY$, is given by

$$\mathcal{L}_XY:= \frac{d}{dt}\bigg|_{t=0} \phi_{-t*}Y.$$

Show that $\mathcal{L}_XY$ is equal to the Lie bracket field $[X,Y]$.
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No one answered this week's problem. You can read my solution below.
Let $f$ be a smooth function on $M$. For each $p\in M$,

$$\mathcal{L}_XYf(p) = \frac{d}{dt}\bigg|_{t = 0} \phi_{-t*}Yf(p) $$
$$= \frac{d}{dt}\bigg|_{t = 0} Y(f\circ \phi_{-t})(\phi_t(p))$$
$$=\lim_{t \to 0} \frac{Y(f\circ \phi_{-t})(\phi_t(p)) - Yf(p)}{t}$$
$$=\lim_{t\to 0} \frac{Y(f\circ \phi_{-t})(\phi_t(p)) - Y(f\circ \phi_{-t})(p)}{t} + \lim_{t\to 0} \frac{Y(f\circ \phi_{-t})(p) - Yf(p)}{t}$$
$$= \lim_{t\to 0} \frac{\phi_t^*Yf - Yf}{t}(\phi_{-t}(p)) + Y\left(\lim_{t\to 0} \frac{(f\circ \phi_{-t})(p) - f(p)}{t}\right)$$
$$=X(Yf)(p) + Y(-Xf)(p)$$
$$= [X,Y]f(p).$$

Since $f$ and $p$ were arbitrary, $\mathcal{L}_XY = [X,Y]$.
 

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