Is the Mean Value Theorem Applicable to Prove sin x < x for x > 0?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on applying the Mean Value Theorem (MVT) to demonstrate that sin x < x for all x > 0. Participants explore the implications of MVT, particularly noting that for x > 1, sin x ≤ 1, which is less than x. The key insight involves proving that (sin x)/(x) = cos(c) for some c in (0, 2π), leading to the conclusion that cos(c) ≤ 1, thereby supporting the inequality. The challenge lies in extending this proof to the entire interval for x > 0.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Mean Value Theorem in calculus
  • Knowledge of trigonometric functions, specifically sine and cosine
  • Familiarity with limits and continuity of functions
  • Basic skills in mathematical proof techniques
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the application of the Mean Value Theorem in various contexts
  • Learn about the behavior of trigonometric functions on specific intervals
  • Explore proofs involving inequalities in calculus
  • Investigate the implications of derivatives in understanding function behavior
USEFUL FOR

Students of calculus, mathematics educators, and anyone interested in understanding the application of the Mean Value Theorem to trigonometric inequalities.

dontdisturbmycircles
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Homework Statement


Show that sin x < x for all x > 0


The Attempt at a Solution


I thought I was pretty good at calculus so I have kinda been shifting my calc class onto the bottom of my todo list, but this mean value theorem problem is giving me some problems.

For x > 1, sin x \leq 1 < x

This was my start... after about 25 minutes of thinking about how the mean value theorem could be applied I looked in the back.. (with much reluctance, trust me). They chose 2pi instead of 1 for the first part, that is likely significant but I am not getting thepoint. They then proceed to prove that (sinx)/(x) = cos(c) for some c in (0,2pi) and I can see that at that point c sin x< x since cos(c)\leq 1 but ONLY at that point c... I don't see how it proves it for the general case in that interval...
 
Last edited:
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Can you show that the slope of the tangent of \sin(x) is less than one for 0&lt;x \leq 1?

Then, if you assume that there is a point with x&gt;0,x=\sin(x) what happens when you apply the mean value theorem?
 

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