Mean value theorem variation proof

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gruba
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Homework Statement


Let [itex]f[/itex] is differentiable function on [itex][0,1][/itex] and [itex]f^{'}(0)=1,f^{'}(1)=0[/itex]. Prove that [itex]\exists c\in(0,1) : f^{'}(c)=f(c)[/itex].

Homework Equations


-Mean Value Theorem

The Attempt at a Solution



The given statement is not true. Counter-example is [itex]f(x)=\frac{2}{\pi}\sin\frac{\pi}{2}x+10[/itex].
Does this mean that the statement can't be proved?
 
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gruba said:

Homework Statement


Let [itex]f[/itex] is differentiable function on [itex][0,1][/itex] and [itex]f^{'}(0)=1,f^{'}(1)=0[/itex]. Prove that [itex]\exists c\in(0,1) : f^{'}(c)=f(c)[/itex].

Homework Equations


-Mean Value Theorem

The Attempt at a Solution



The given statement is not true. Counter-example is [itex]f(x)=\frac{2}{\pi}\sin\frac{\pi}{2}x+10[/itex].
Does this mean that the statement can't be proved?

There is a difference between "can't be proved" and "is false". If a statement has a counterexample, it is false; that is stronger than the claim that it 'cannot be proved' (but, of course, it cannot be proved as well).