Is There a Homogenous Function of Degree n < 0?

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Homogeneous functions of degree n < 0 do exist, as demonstrated by the function f(x,y) = y/x^2, which is homogeneous of degree -1. The Euler theorem on homogeneous functions confirms that for a function f(x,y) that is homogeneous in degree n, the relationship n f(x,y) = x ∂f/∂x + y ∂f/∂y holds true. This theorem is applied to show that the function f(x,y) = x/y^2 satisfies the conditions for being homogeneous of degree -1. Additionally, the concept is relevant in the context of the n-body problem, where the potential energy function U is homogeneous of degree -1, indicating the absence of equilibrium solutions.

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Is there such a thing as a homogenous function of degree n < 0?

Considering functions of two variables, the expression:

f(x,y) = \frac{y}{x}

is homogeneous in degree 0, since:

f(tx,ty) = \frac{ty}{tx} = \frac{y}{x} = f(x,y) = t^0 \cdot f(x,y)

and the expression:

f(x,y) = x

is homogenous in degree 1 since:

f(tx,ty) = tx = t^1 \cdot f(x,y)

and the expression:

f(x,y) = x^3y^2

is homogeneous in degree 5, since:

f(tx,ty) = t^5 \cdot f(x,y)

I suppose that in the same way I could construct a function something like:

f(x,y) = \frac{y}{x^2}

So that:

f(tx,ty) = t^{-1} \cdot f(x,y)

or in other words, "homogenous" in degree n = -1.

Does this ever really come up much?
 
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I think the answer is "yes"..

For instance, the Euler theorem on homogeneous functions states, in relevant part, that if you have a function in two variables, x and y, which is homogeneous in degree n, then:

n f(x,y) = x \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} + y \frac{\partial f}{\partial y}

So taking the example I gave above, where you have:

f(x,y) = \frac{x}{y^2}

which, ostensibly, is homogeneous in degree -1. Plugging this equation in the Euler theorem above, you would have:

\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = \frac{1}{y^2}

x\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = \frac{x}{y^2}

and that:

\frac{\partial f}{\partial y} = -2\frac{x}{y^3}

y\frac{\partial f}{\partial y } = -2\frac{x}{y^2}

so that:

x\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} + y\frac{\partial f}{\partial y} = -\frac{x}{y^2} = -f(x,y)

which is what we would expect of a function which is homogenous in degree -1..
 
Yes.

Consider the following:

<br /> U = \sum_{1 \leq i &lt; j \leq n}^{n} \frac{m_i m_j}{||q_i - q_j||}<br />

It usually appears in the n-body problem in the form of...

<br /> m_i \ddot{x_i} = \frac{dU}{dq_i}<br />

The fact that U is homogeneous of degree -1 is key to prove that there are no equilibrium solutions for the n-body problem.
 

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