- #1
n_kelthuzad
- 26
- 0
Is there a theory about one-sided "equations"?
I am working on infinity recently. Trying to define the 'indirect' result of infinity as 'range of numbers'. So its like: if there is a set A of infinite elements, f(x)=a[itex]\wedge[/itex]b[itex]\wedge[/itex]c[itex]\wedge[/itex]d... (a,b,c,d...[itex]\in[/itex]A);
However, one cannot say a=f(x) or b=f(x) and so on.
e.g. 1 = e^2i∏ (I know the argument so don't need to remind me e^0i∏)
and 1 = e^0
both equations are true but only remains in the equation. if you pull them out:
2i∏ [itex]\neq[/itex] 0 (well that should be true if i^1 have 'impact' on the real plane)
And what should be the correct way to express this?
TY,
Victor Lu, 16, BHS, CHCH, NZ
I am working on infinity recently. Trying to define the 'indirect' result of infinity as 'range of numbers'. So its like: if there is a set A of infinite elements, f(x)=a[itex]\wedge[/itex]b[itex]\wedge[/itex]c[itex]\wedge[/itex]d... (a,b,c,d...[itex]\in[/itex]A);
However, one cannot say a=f(x) or b=f(x) and so on.
e.g. 1 = e^2i∏ (I know the argument so don't need to remind me e^0i∏)
and 1 = e^0
both equations are true but only remains in the equation. if you pull them out:
2i∏ [itex]\neq[/itex] 0 (well that should be true if i^1 have 'impact' on the real plane)
And what should be the correct way to express this?
TY,
Victor Lu, 16, BHS, CHCH, NZ