loseyourname
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Kerrie said:I would have to agree with this simply because the complexity of variables in a chart are never identical to any other's chart. I would think in order for astrology to go through scientific testing, both subjects being tested must be born at exact times, exact places, and have exact experiences. Without this, the test would technically be invalid because you aren't comparing two identical charts, which leaves room for variances.
You may have missed it the first time, but I kind of asked a question about this earlier that went ignored. You seem to be saying that no two charts are alike, and so no two people are alike. Fair enough. However, if one million people share chart feature X, but show absolutely no statistical correlation between that feature and personality trait Y, for whatever reason (free will, their charts are different in other ways, etc.), how can an astrologer claim that feature X even pulls a person toward trait Y? On what does the astrologer base that claim? This comes back again to the question of the first astrologer: (Hypothetically) If the first astrologer claimed that people having Mars in Virgo at the moment of birth were imparted with the tendency to succeed in business ventures, but there was no statistical evidence to suggest any correlation whatsoever between business success and having Mars in Virgo at birth, on what did he base the claim? If he didn't make his deductions scientifically, that's fine, but how did he make them?