- #1

tandoorichicken

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Hello everyone.

I'm asked in a problem to prove that a given general solution is valid for the wave equation

[tex]\nabla^2 p - \frac{1}{c_0^2} \frac{\partial^2 p}{\partial t^2} = 0 [/tex].

The given solution was

[tex]p(x, t) = A_1 f_1 (x - c_0 t) + A_2 f_2 (x + c_0 t)[/tex].

I just need a check of work here. I plugged in the solution and calculated out for a 1-dimensional wave equation, but I might have made some assumptions along the way that are un-kosher.

I'm asked in a problem to prove that a given general solution is valid for the wave equation

[tex]\nabla^2 p - \frac{1}{c_0^2} \frac{\partial^2 p}{\partial t^2} = 0 [/tex].

The given solution was

[tex]p(x, t) = A_1 f_1 (x - c_0 t) + A_2 f_2 (x + c_0 t)[/tex].

I just need a check of work here. I plugged in the solution and calculated out for a 1-dimensional wave equation, but I might have made some assumptions along the way that are un-kosher.

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