Klein-Gordon linear potential solution

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on an exact solution to the Klein-Gordon equation with a linear potential, presented by a user named Todd. This solution is noted to be a relativistic analog to a simpler linear potential solution in the Schrödinger equation, which is not expressed in terms of energy eigenstates. The solution is proposed to represent wavefunctions of accelerating particles, with references to the Lorentz force as derived from the Klein-Gordon equation. The conversation highlights the potential for further development into research papers, emphasizing the need for a deeper understanding of the probabilistic interpretation of Klein-Gordon wavefunctions.

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pellman
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I have an exact solution to the Klein-Gordon equation with linear potential. But I am only an amateur physics enthusiast with no incentive (or time) to do anything with it, nor familiarity enough with the physics to know if it is interesting and, if so, interesting to whom. It has been sitting on my desk for a couple of years now.

It is a quite simple solution but not given in terms of energy eigenstates. It is the relativistic analog to a very simple solution of the linear potential Schrödinger case--which itself is so simple you could write it on the palm of your hand, but which appears to be generally unknown since it also is not in terms of energy eigenstates and so (I presume) not useful.


If you are interested in having it to further develop it into a paper or incorporate it into your research, let me know.

If you are reading this any time after a week of posting this, send me a PM since I probably won't see replies to the discussion thread.

Todd
 
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pellman said:
I have an exact solution to the Klein-Gordon equation with linear potential.

Todd

The solution(s) should simply be wavefunctions of accelerating particles.
See for instance. "The Lorentz force from the Klein Gordon equation"

http://www.physics-quest.org/Book_Lorentz_force_from_Klein_Gordon.pdf

Which should become more evident if you take the charge-current density of your solution.

[tex] \begin{aligned}<br /> &j^o ~~=~~~~ &\frac{i\hbar e}{2m}\left(~\psi^*\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial x^o}-\frac{\partial \psi^*}{\partial x^o}\psi ~ \right) ~~-~~ &\frac{e}{c}~\Phi~\psi^*\psi<br /> \\<br /> &j^i ~~=~~ - &\frac{i\hbar e}{2m}\left(~\psi^*\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial x^i}-\frac{\partial \psi^*}{\partial x^i}\psi ~ \right) ~~-~~ &e\,A^i~\psi^*\psi<br /> \end{aligned}[/tex]


Regards, Hans
 
Hans de Vries said:
The solution(s) should simply be wavefunctions of accelerating particles.

A point of interest is that in both the Schrödinger and K-G cases the explicit solutions are NOT the same as a free particle viewed from a constantly accelerating frame. In other words, you can't make the solution for a linear potential -Fx look like the free particle solution by substituting x --> x - F/m .

In the Schrödinger case though it is true that any expectation value is the same as the free particle case viewed from an accelerated frame, so the equivalence principle would still hold experimentally.

I can't make the same claim for the Klein-Gordon case because ... I don't know what the probabilistic interpretation of a K-G wave is! (I think its still an open question.)
 

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