- #1

- 54

- 3

## Main Question or Discussion Point

Dirac wanted to fix the problems with the Klein-Gordon equation by seeking a new solution to it.

He wanted a relativistic solution so it makes sense that the solution needed to satisfy Einstein's energy-momentum relation.

But why did it need to be of first order in time- and spatial-derivatives?

Is that a requirement for it to be invariance under Lorentz transformation?

(Don't be to hard on me, I'm just getting started with this stuff :) )

He wanted a relativistic solution so it makes sense that the solution needed to satisfy Einstein's energy-momentum relation.

But why did it need to be of first order in time- and spatial-derivatives?

Is that a requirement for it to be invariance under Lorentz transformation?

(Don't be to hard on me, I'm just getting started with this stuff :) )