LagrangeEuler
- 711
- 22
Lets consider very simple equation ##x''(t)=0## for ##x(0)=0##, ##x'(0)=0##. By employing Laplace transform I will get
s^2X(s)=0 where ##X(s)## is Laplace transform of ##x(t)##. Why then this is equivalent to
X(s)=0
why we do not consider ##s=0##?
s^2X(s)=0 where ##X(s)## is Laplace transform of ##x(t)##. Why then this is equivalent to
X(s)=0
why we do not consider ##s=0##?