Levitron and Earnshaw’s theorem.

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the relationship between Earnshaw's theorem and magnetic levitation, specifically in the context of the Levitron. Earnshaw's theorem, derived from Maxwell's equations, typically prohibits stable magnetic levitation configurations. However, the Levitron serves as a counterexample, demonstrating that moving ferromagnets can circumvent the limitations imposed by the theorem. The key distinction lies in the dynamic nature of the Levitron, which spins and thus does not conform to the static conditions outlined in Earnshaw's theorem.

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andresB
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The Earnshaw’s theorem comes directly from Maxwell equation so it should be unavoidable in any classical situation. The theorem usually disallows magnetic levitation. However, there are loopholes. Quoting wikipedia "Earnshaw's theorem has no exceptions for non-moving permanent ferromagnets. However, Earnshaw's theorem does not necessarily apply to moving ferromagnets".

The usual counterexample to the impossibility of an equilibrium situation for magnetic levitation is given by the levitron
Open article on the subject: https://iopscience.iop.org/article/10.1088/1361-6404/abbc2c

I tried the literature on the topic, but I still can't understand what is actually happening with the levitron and the Earnshaw’s theorem. Is the theorem simply not applicable to the levitron? why? how?
 
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andresB said:
The Earnshaw’s theorem comes directly from Maxwell equation so it should be unavoidable in any classical situation. The theorem usually disallows magnetic levitation.
It disallows stable static configurations.
andresB said:
Is the theorem simply not applicable to the levitron? why?
Because it spins, so it's not static.
 

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