- #1

musicgold

- 304

- 19

Hi,

I have question about the limit used in the definition of Euler's constant.

[/PLAIN]

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/E_%28mathematical_constant%29[/URL]

Why can't I say that as n reaches infinity, the term 1/n reaches to zero, and therefore the answer is 1^n?

Thanks.

I have question about the limit used in the definition of Euler's constant.

[/PLAIN]

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/E_%28mathematical_constant%29[/URL]

Why can't I say that as n reaches infinity, the term 1/n reaches to zero, and therefore the answer is 1^n?

Thanks.

Last edited by a moderator: