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I have question about the limit used in the definition of Euler's constant.

[/PLAIN] [Broken]

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/E_%28mathematical_constant%29[/URL] [Broken]

Why can't I say that as n reaches infinity, the term 1/n reaches to zero, and therefore the answer is 1^n?

Thanks.

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# Limit question related to Euler's constant

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