MHB Lipschitz Condition: Does $f(t,y)$ Satisfy? Find Constant

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The discussion centers on whether the function \( f(t,y) = \frac{|y|}{t} \) satisfies the Lipschitz condition uniformly in \( t \) for \( t \in [-1,1] \). Initial calculations suggested that \( f \) meets the Lipschitz condition with a constant of 1, but subsequent analysis revealed that as \( t \) approaches 0, the condition fails, leading to the conclusion that \( f(t,y) \) does not satisfy the Lipschitz condition uniformly. It was clarified that while \( f(t,y) \) is Lipschitz for each fixed \( t \neq 0 \), the uniformity fails as \( t \) approaches 0. The conversation emphasizes the distinction between local Lipschitz continuity and uniform Lipschitz continuity across the specified domain.
evinda
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Hello! (Wave)

Does the following $f(t,y)$ satisfy the Lipschitz condition as for $y$, uniformly as for $t$? If so, find the Lipschitz constant.

$$f(t,y)=\frac{|y|}{t}, t \in [-1,1]$$

I have tried the following:

$$\frac{|f(t,y_1)-f(t,y_2)|}{|y_1-y_2|}=\frac{|y_1|-|y_2|}{t|y_1-y_2|} \leq - \frac{|y_1|-|y_2|}{|y_1-y_2|}= \frac{|y_2|-|y_1|}{|y_1-y_2|} \leq \frac{|y_1-y_2|}{|y_1-y_2|}=1$$

Thus $f$ satisfies the Lipschitz condition and the Lipschitz constant is equal to $1$.

Is it right? (Thinking)
 
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evinda said:
$$\frac{|f(t,y_1)-f(t,y_2)|}{|y_1-y_2|}=\frac{|y_1|-|y_2|}{t|y_1-y_2|} \leq - \frac{|y_1|-|y_2|}{|y_1-y_2|}$$
These equality and inequality are incorrect.
 
Evgeny.Makarov said:
These equality and inequality are incorrect.

Is it right now?

$\frac{|f(t,y_1)-f(t,y_2)|}{|y_1-y_2|}= \frac{|\frac{|y_1|}{t}-\frac{ |y_2|}{t} |}{|y_1-y_2|}= \frac{||y_1|-|y_2||}{|t| |y_1-y_2|} \leq \frac{|y_1-y_2|}{|t| |y_1-y_2|}=\frac{1}{|t|} \overset{t \to 0}{\to } +\infty$

So we deduce that $f(t,y)$ doesn't satisfy the Lipschitz condition.
 
The formulas are correct, but the conclusion is incorrect without the word "uniformly".
 
Evgeny.Makarov said:
The formulas are correct, but the conclusion is incorrect without the word "uniformly".

So do we want to prove that the $\frac{|f(t,y_1)-f(t,y_2)|}{|y_1-y_2|}$ converges uniformly to $+\infty$, i.e. for any $t$ we pick?
But doesn't it only happen for $t \to 0$? Or am I wrong?

Or did you mean with uniformly that the limit is $+\infty$ for any $y_1, y_2 \in \mathbb{R}$ and for $t \to 0$?
 
Last edited:
This problem does not require talking about convergence, especially uniform convergence. It is about uniform Lipschitz property. For each particular $t\ne0$ the function $f(t,y)$ is Lipschitz.
 
Evgeny.Makarov said:
This problem does not require talking about convergence, especially uniform convergence. It is about uniform Lipschitz property. For each particular $t\ne0$ the function $f(t,y)$ is Lipschitz.

Ah I see... Thanks a lot! (Smile)
 

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