Lp Space Examples: Functions in L2 but Not L1

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around identifying examples of functions that belong to L2 spaces but not to L1 spaces. Participants explore the properties of these function spaces, including convergence of integrals and the implications of bounded versus unbounded intervals.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant seeks examples of functions that are in L2 but not in L1, initially proposing f(x) = 1/sqrt(x) but questioning its classification.
  • Another participant outlines two reasons for integral divergence: functions blowing up at finite points and insufficient decay at infinity.
  • A third participant provides a specific example of a function, f(x) = 1/x for x ≥ 1 and 0 for x < 1, which is in L2(R) but not in L1(R), emphasizing the importance of the interval in Lp spaces.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express varying degrees of understanding regarding the relationships between L1 and L2 spaces, with some uncertainty about the implications of bounded versus unbounded intervals. No consensus is reached on the initial examples proposed.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the significance of the interval in determining membership in Lp spaces, particularly highlighting the differences between bounded and unbounded intervals. There are unresolved questions about the nature of convergence and the behavior of functions at specific points.

redrzewski
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Can anyone give me examples of functions in one space but not another?

For instance, some f(x) with f(x) in L2 but not in L1?

The best I can come up with so far is:
f(x) = 1/sqrt(x). Thus is unbounded at 0, but would be in L1 since its integral on 0 to 1 is bounded.

But I can't seem to come up with any examples of a function that would be in L2 but not L1. I've tried polynomial, trig, and some complex functions.

Also, it appears that Ln for some finite n is "larger" than Linfinity. This seems to follow from my above example, since that f(x) wouldn't be in Linfinity but would be in L1, right?

But if Linfinity is the limit of Ln as n goes to infinity, then there must be some inflection point where some Lm is "smaller" than the Ln for m > n.

Is this accurate?


Or is it that L1 is "larger" than L2? This makes more sense, for 1/sqrt(x) is in L1. But (1/sqrt(x))^2 = 1/x is not in L2. So f(x) is not in L2.

thanks
brian
 
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There are roughly two reasons why an integral might not converge:

1) it has some finite values of x where it blows up to infinity, and if it blows up too fast, then the integral diverges

2) it doesn't decay fast enough as x goes to infinity (analogously, the sum of 1/n diverges but the sum of 1/n2 converges, because 1/n2 decays "fast enough")

Raising a function to a higher power helps it to decay faster at infinity, but it makes the areas of finite x where the function blows up worse.
 
Lp spaces come with an interval attached, usually. This interval is important.

For any bounded interval [a,b], if f is in L2[a,b], then f is also in L1[a,b]. This is not true for unbounded intervals.

Take the function

f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}\frac{1}{x} &amp; x \geq 1 \\ 0 &amp; x &lt; 1\end{array}

This is in L2(R) but not in L1(R).
 
Thank you both. That's exactly the clarification I was looking for.
 

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