Math Problem: Proving n! >= 2^(n-1) with Mathematical Induction

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the mathematical proof of the inequality n! >= 2^(n-1) using mathematical induction. Participants explore the steps involved in the induction process and alternative approaches to the problem.

Discussion Character

  • Homework-related
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents an induction hypothesis that k! >= 2^(k-1) and attempts to prove it for n=k+1.
  • Another participant points out a misinterpretation regarding the base case and the correct formulation of the inequality.
  • A third participant suggests that the proof can be completed by manipulating the inequality and emphasizes the need for a 2^k term on the right-hand side.
  • A later reply introduces a non-inductive approach using logarithms to demonstrate the inequality, providing a different perspective on the problem.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the best method to prove the inequality, as some focus on induction while others propose an alternative logarithmic approach. The discussion remains open with various viewpoints presented.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note the importance of establishing the base case for induction and clarify the correct formulation of the inequality, indicating potential misunderstandings in the initial approach.

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I have a problem when trying to prove n! >= 2^(n-1).

My work:

Assuming n=k, k! >= 2^k-1 (induction hypothesis).

To prove true for n=k+1,

(k+1)! >= 2^(k+1)-1 = 2^k

Now considering R.S., 2^k = (2^(k-1))(2)I get stuck here. I don't know how to continue onwards to prove that (k+1)! is >= 2^k.

Can anyone show what I did wrong or what I should've done?
 
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First, You don't mean 2^k-1, you mean 2^(k-1). That is, the formula you want to prove is n!>= 2k-1, not n!>= 2k-1 (which is not true, for example, for n= 3).

Second, you didn't do the "base case": when n= 1, n!= 1 which is equal to 21-1= 2-1.

Third, assuming that k!>= 2^(k- 1), you don't know that (k+1)! >= 2^((k+1)-1)= 2^k . That's what you want to prove!

(k+1)!= (k+1)k! >= (k+1)(2k-1). Now what you need is to prove that (k+1)(2k-1) is larger than or equal to 2k. Perhaps you can do that with a separate induction proof.
 
k! >= 2^(k-1)
(k+1)k! >= (k+1)2^(k-1)
(k+1)! >= (k+1)2^(k-1)

You want a 2^k to appear on the RHS. You know that k is a natural number. It should be fairly easy to finish it off from there.
 
Alright, thanks guys. I got it.
 
There's a simple way to do it without induction:

[tex]n!\geq 2^{n-1}\Rightarrow \ln (n!) = \sum_{k=1}^{n} \ln (k) \geq (n-1)\ln (2)[/tex]

since [itex]\ln(1)=0[/itex] and [itex]\ln(1)<\ln(2)<\ln(3)<\cdot\cdot\cdot<\ln(n-1)<\ln(n)[/itex] it follows that

[tex]\sum_{k=1}^{n} \ln (k) = \sum_{k=2}^{n} \ln (k) > \sum_{k=2}^{n} \ln (2) \geq (n-1)\ln (2)[/tex]

where the last inequality is not an equality for the sake of the n=1 case.
 

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