Matter density in Weinberg's Cosmology book

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the mathematical requirement for the matter density function ρ(r) in S. Weinberg's Cosmology book to be an analytic function near the origin, specifically addressing why it must be expressed as a power series of r² and not include odd powers of r.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants propose that including odd powers of r would prevent the function from being analytic, citing the nature of the function r itself as an example.
  • Others argue that the discussion is complicated by the fact that ρ(r) is a three-dimensional function, and the coordinate system is singular at r=0, which may affect the analysis.
  • A later reply suggests that while ρ(r) depends only on r, the divergence in the gradient from other coordinates (θ and φ) must be considered, leading to the conclusion that a divergence of 1/r at r=0 necessitates ρ(r) being a function of r².

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the implications of dimensionality and singularities in the coordinate system, indicating that the discussion remains unresolved regarding the specifics of the analytic requirement for ρ(r).

Contextual Notes

Limitations include the potential misunderstanding of the dimensionality of the function and the implications of singularities at r=0, which may not be fully addressed in the discussion.

jouvelot
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Hi everyone,

On Page 72 of S. Weinberg's Cosmology book, it's mentioned, just after Equation 1.9.16, that, for the universe matter density ρ(r) to be an analytic function near the origin (spherical symmetry), it has to be given near r = 0 by a power series of r2. I'm not a math wizard, so can anyone explain this little detail to me, please (why no odd powers of r)?

Thanks in advance.

Pierre
 
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If it contained powers of ##r##, then it would not be analytic. Consider the function ##r## itself.
 
Hi,

Thanks a lot for taking the time to answer my question, but I still don't get it. Analytic means, to me, for a function to be locally identical to its (convergent) Taylor expansion. Why wouldn't this work for r near 0, using spherical coordinates?

Thanks.

Bye,

Pierre
 
You are looking at it as a one-dimensional function. It is a three-dimensional function. Note that the coordinate system is singular at r=0.
 
Hi,

Indeed, but since ρ(r) is supposed to only depend on r and the coordinate divergence on the gradient only comes from θ and φ, I assumed this wouldn't be a factor. But I guess a 0 doesn't remove the 1/r divergence ;)

Thanks.

Bye,

Pierre
 
jouvelot said:
Indeed, but since ρ(r) is supposed to only depend on r and the coordinate divergence on the gradient only comes from θ and φ, I assumed this wouldn't be a factor. But I guess a 0 doesn't remove the 1/r divergence ;)
Answering my own question, if the gradient has only a 1/r divergence for r=0, the vector Laplacian diverges in 1/r2, thus mandating ρ(r) to be a function of r2.
 

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