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Matter dominance

  1. Jun 23, 2011 #1
    Are there any explanations for the abundance of matter during the M/AM annhialation phase?

    If the Universe is spatially flat and infinite, then would it have mattered how much Antimatter there was as by definition a flat and spatially infinite U has infinite matter and energy.

    Is there also a measurable anti-energy? As if mass/energy are interchageable then wouldnt anti-matter be changeable with anti-energy?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jun 23, 2011 #2

    bcrowell

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    Theorists always have answers to our questions. Just don't expect them to agree with each other :-)

    WP has an article on this topic: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Baryon_asymmetry

    The total energy of the universe is not well defined: https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=506985 I don't think there's even any standard way of saying whether it's finite or infinite.

    There really isn't anti-energy. The difference between an electron and a positron is electric charge. For example, if you annihilate an electron with an antielectron, you get zero charge, but you don't get zero energy (energy canceling with anti-energy), you get 1022 keV of energy.
     
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