There is a question that has been bugging and puzzling me for a long time and I wondered if somebody could help me to figure out what the answer is or where I am not thinking straight.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Let us assume that the standard model of particle physics is more "right" than "wrong" and there is no such a thing as a supersymmetry between fundamental fermions and bosons. If this were the case, then we would have that when the cosmological EW phase transition took place, strong interactions were already differentiated from EW interactions.

The idea of an electro-weak phase transition seems to be borrowed from condensed matter physics, more precisely, from the physics of critical phenomena. I have always assumed that the analogy is more fundamental than formal (maybe I am wrong). If this is true, the whole universe was described by a single "partition function". I am not quite sure how quarks, neutrinos and electrons could have a common temperature (and exchange energy-momentum) since they were all massless particles, but that is not very important for the moment.

It is hard for me to believe that this phase transition could be "first order" instead of "second order" since the former are characterized by a finite range correlation length wheareas the latter by an infinite correlation length. However it seems that this phase transition has to be "first order" because, otherwise, baryon asymmetry could not be convicingly explained.

But if the EW phase transition were "first order", should not Higgs field have different expectation values in different regions of the universe? If this were the case, should not these different parts of the univese have different physical properties?

I would appreciate it very much if anyone could tell me where I am wrong.

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# I Cosmological electroweak phase transition

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