Measurable Function (Another Question)

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the measurability of the image of a measurable set under a measurable function, specifically questioning whether the image of a measurable set under a measurable function is itself measurable. It also explores the case when the function is continuous.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether the image of a measurable set under a measurable function is measurable, suggesting that the answer is no.
  • Another participant agrees with the first question's answer being no and discusses the implications for continuous functions, proposing that the image of a measurable set under a continuous function is measurable.
  • A later reply introduces a counterexample involving the Cantor function and its properties, arguing that a continuous function can map a measurable set to a non-measurable set.
  • Participants discuss the implications of the Cantor function and provide a detailed argument involving the mapping of sets and the application of Vitali's theorem.
  • One participant acknowledges a misunderstanding regarding the original question and corrects their interpretation, affirming the validity of the counterexample presented.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus; there is disagreement on the measurability of the image of a measurable set under a measurable function, with some asserting it is not measurable while others suggest it is under certain conditions.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes complex arguments involving specific functions and theorems, which may depend on particular definitions and assumptions about measurability and continuity. The implications of the Cantor function and its properties are central to the debate.

TheBigBadBen
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Is it true that if $$f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$$ is a measurable function and $$E\subset\mathbb{R}$$ is measurable, then $$f(E)$$ is measurable? What if f is assumed to be continuous?

I think that the answer is no for the first and yes for the second, but I have no idea how to prove/disprove either.
 
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girdav said:
Indeed, for the first question the answer is no: real analysis - Range of function measurable? - Mathematics Stack Exchange

For the second one, the range of $\Bbb R$ of a continuous function is connected. What are the connected subsets of the real line? Are they measurable?

As it ends up, my intuition for the second problem was totally off. In fact, the counterexample handily provided for my other question
http://www.mathhelpboards.com/f50/measurable-function-4789/
does the job here.

We have the following argument:
Let $$f(x)$$ be the Cantor function, and let C be the cantor set. Note that $$f(C) = [0,1]$$, since f is non-increasing on all points outside of C.

Define $$g:[0,1]\rightarrow [0,2]$$ by $$g(x) = x + f(x)$$. Since g maps every interval outside of C to an interval of the same length, we can deduce that $$m(g(C))=1$$. By Vitali's theorem, there is a non-measurable set $$A\subset g(C)$$. Note that $$B:=g^{-1}(A)$$ is a subset of C. Because B is a subset of a null set, B is null and hence measurable.

Thus, we have $$g(B) = A$$. g is a continuous (and hence measurable) function that takes a measurable set, B, to a non-measurable set, A. Thus, the answer to both questions is no.
 
You are right. For the second question I misread the question, I believed you asked about $f(\Bbb R)$. I've now edited.

Your counter-example seems correct.
 

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