Metric Spaces of Bounded Sequences

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The discussion centers on the convergence of sequences in the space L of all bounded sequences, using two different metrics: ρ₁ and ρₓ. A participant is exploring whether the sequence xₙ = sin(n) converges to the zero sequence in ρ₁ but not in ρₓ, while also questioning the convergence to a constant sequence. Clarifications are made regarding the definition of convergence, emphasizing the need for a sequence of sequences in L. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding the metrics and correcting initial misconceptions about convergence criteria. Ultimately, the discussion leads to the suggestion of considering sequences composed solely of 0's and 1's as potential counterexamples.
octane90
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I was attempting to find a counterexample to the problem below. I think I may have, but was ultimately left with more questions than answers.

Consider the space, L, of all bounded sequences with the metric \rho_1

\displaystyle \rho_1(x,y)=\sum\limits_{t=1}^{\infty}2^{-t}|x_t-y_t|

Show that a sequence that converges to X^* in (L,\rho_1) does not necessarily converge to X^* in (L,\rho_\infty)

Where, \rho_\infty(x,y)=sup_t|x_t-y_t|.

I believe convergence means:

X converges to Y if \forall \epsilon>0 \exists N s.t. \sum\limits_{t=N}^{\infty}2^{-t}|x_t-y_t|<\epsilon

I believe that x_n=sin (n) converges to the 0 sequence in \rho_1, but not in \rho_\infty. However, it seems like x_n=sin (n) could also be shown to converge to {1,1,1,1,...} under \rho_1 which shouldn't be allowed.

Could anyone help me out?
 
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octane90 said:
Where, \rho_\infty(x,y)=sup(x_t,y_t).

I doubt that this is correct. It should be \rho_\infty(x,y)=\sup_t |x_t-y_t|.

I believe convergence means:

X converges to Y if \forall \epsilon>0 \exists N s.t. \sum\limits_{t=N}^{\infty}2^{-t}|x_t-y_t|<\epsilon

This is not what convergence is. First of all you must have a sequence of elements in L. That is, you have to start from a sequence of sequences. Let X_k=(x_k^n)_n, then we can say that X_k\rightarrow Y if for each \varepsilon>0, there exists an N such that for all k\geq N holds that \rho_1(X_k,Y)<\varepsilon. That last inequality is of course the same as

\sum_{t=1}^{+\infty} 2^{-t}|x_k^t-y^t|<\varepsilon

I believe that x_n=sin (n) converges to the 0 sequence in \rho_1, but not in \rho_\infty. However, it seems like x_n=sin (n) could also be shown to converge to {1,1,1,1,...} under $\rho_1$ which should be allowed.

This is of course incorrect, since x_n=\sin(n) is only one sequence. Again: you must have a sequence of sequences.
 
Thanks, that was very helpful. It makes sense that I need to be thinking of a sequence of sequences. I was just having trouble wrapping my head around this L space.

And you are of course right about my typo in the problem set-up, I fixed it.
 
The counterexample you're looking for is very easy. Think about sequences with only 0's and 1's.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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