- #1
ChrisVer
Gold Member
- 3,378
- 464
A pretty straightforward question because right now I can't think how it works:
The missing transverse momentum azimuthial angle (φ) is calculated by measuring the x- and y- components of the missing transverse momentum [itex]E_x,E_y[/itex] and taking:
[itex]\phi^{miss} = arctan(E_y/E_x)[/itex]
https://cds.cern.ch/record/2037904/files/ATL-PHYS-PUB-2015-027.pdf (equation 3)
So if that's the final formula, then the [itex]\phi^{miss} \in [- \pi/2, \pi/2][/itex]...
how is it possible to span the whole range, [itex]\phi^{miss} \in [-\pi, \pi] [/itex] ?
wouldn't there have to be a case when [itex]E_x<0[/itex] to take an alternative formula?
The missing transverse momentum azimuthial angle (φ) is calculated by measuring the x- and y- components of the missing transverse momentum [itex]E_x,E_y[/itex] and taking:
[itex]\phi^{miss} = arctan(E_y/E_x)[/itex]
https://cds.cern.ch/record/2037904/files/ATL-PHYS-PUB-2015-027.pdf (equation 3)
So if that's the final formula, then the [itex]\phi^{miss} \in [- \pi/2, \pi/2][/itex]...
how is it possible to span the whole range, [itex]\phi^{miss} \in [-\pi, \pi] [/itex] ?
wouldn't there have to be a case when [itex]E_x<0[/itex] to take an alternative formula?