Modular form quick question translation algebra

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the properties of modular forms, specifically the behavior of the function \( f(\tau) \) under transformations. It establishes that \( T_{p} f(\tau + 1) = T_{p} f(\tau) \) and \( f(p\tau + p) = f(p\tau) \) due to the periodicity of the exponential function \( e^{2\pi i n} = 1 \). The confusion arises regarding the transition from \( f\left(\frac{\tau + 1 + j}{p}\right) \) to \( f\left(\frac{\tau + j}{p}\right) \), particularly when \( p \) is not guaranteed to be an integer. The explanation provided clarifies that this is a standard substitution technique in summation processes.

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binbagsss
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Please see attached.

I am trying to show that

## T_{p} f (\tau + 1) = T_{p} f (\tau ) ##
##f(\tau) \in M_k ## and so can be written as a expansion as ##f(\tau)=\sum\limits^{\infty}_{0}a_{n}e^{2 \pi i n \tau } ##
##f(\tau + 1) = f(\tau) ## since ##e^{2\pi i n} = 1##
Similarly ##f(p\tau + p) = f(p\tau) ## for the same reason since ##np \in Z \geq 1 ## so the extra exponential term is ##1## again.

But I DONT UNDERSTAND how it goes from ##f(\frac{\tau + 1 + j}{p}) = f(\frac{\tau+j}{p}) ## , since it is not guarenteed that ##1/p## is an integer, I mean it only is when ##p=1## so ##e^{2 \pi n i (t+1+j)/p} = e^{ 2 \pi i n (t+j)/p}e^{2 \pi i n (1/p) } ## and ##e^{2 \pi i n (1/p) } ## is equal to ##1## only when ##p=1##. second equality of attached.

help please. thank you.
 

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It is simply a substitution of ##j \rightarrow i-1## and calling the ##i## afterwards ##j## again. (A usual business when dealing with sums.)
 
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