Moment of inertia and angular velocity

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The discussion focuses on calculating the moment of inertia (I) of a disc and its angular velocity (ω) when released from rest. The moment of inertia is determined using the formula Id = Icm + md^2, resulting in a value of 0.675 kg/m². For the angular speed at the lowest point, the relevant equations relate linear and angular acceleration, leading to an angular velocity of approximately 10.1 rad/s. There is uncertainty about the relevance of certain equations and whether angular acceleration should depend on the moment of inertia. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding the relationship between these physical concepts.
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Homework Statement


attachment.php?attachmentid=67419&stc=1&d=1394286461.jpg


(a) Calculate the moment of inertia I of the disc when it rotates about the pivot as shown in the figure.
(b) If the disc is released from rest, determine the angular speed, ω, of the disc at its lowest point.

Homework Equations



a) Id = Icm + md^2
Icm = 1/2*M*R^2
b) a = r*γ, a=g
(ωf)^2 = (ωi)^2 + 2*γ*θ

The Attempt at a Solution



a) Id = Icm + md^2
= 1/2MR^2 + 5(0.3^2)
= 1/2*5*0.3^2 + 5(0.3^2)
= 0.675 kg/m^2

b) a = r*γ, a=g, γ = g/r
θ = ¼*2pi
(ωf)^2 = (ωi)^2 + 2*γ*θ
ωf = sqrt(2*g/r*1/4*2pi) = sqrt(2*9.8/0.3*1/4*2pi = 10.1 rad/s

Am I doing the question correctly?
Thank you very much.
 

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I am not sure what the "relevant equation" for (b) means.
 
voko said:
I am not sure what the "relevant equation" for (b) means.

b) a = r*γ, a=g
(ωf)^2 = (ωi)^2 + 2*γ*θ

Oh, I'm sorry for this.
I was trying to show that

linear acceleration = radius * angular acceleration,
where linear acceleration = gravitational acceleration, in this case

(final angular velocity)^2 = (initial angular velocity)^2 + 2*angular acceleration*angular displacement
 
Don't you think angular acceleration should depend on the moment of inertia?

Besides, why do you think it will be constant?
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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