Need for SR to Explain Magnetic Forces?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the necessity of special relativity (SR) to explain magnetic forces, specifically the Lorentz force law, represented as F=q(v x B). It is established that a stationary charged particle in a magnetic field does not experience a force, but when transitioning to a moving frame, the particle acquires velocity relative to that frame, leading to a non-zero force. The transformation of electric and magnetic fields between frames is crucial, as the electric field appears in the moving frame, necessitating the use of special relativity to maintain the invariance of physical laws across different reference frames.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Lorentz force law (F=q(v x B))
  • Knowledge of electromagnetic field transformations
  • Familiarity with special relativity principles
  • Basic grasp of reference frames in physics
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the transformation of electric and magnetic fields in special relativity
  • Learn about the implications of the Lorentz force law in different reference frames
  • Explore the relationship between electric fields (E) and magnetic fields (B) in moving frames
  • Investigate classical electromagnetism and its connection to special relativity
USEFUL FOR

Physicists, students of electromagnetism, and anyone interested in the foundational concepts of special relativity and its application to magnetic forces.

pantheid
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Here's my problem. We know the magnetic force is just F=q(v x B). If we have a stationary charged particle in a magnetic field, it will not feel a force. If we change to a moving frame, the particle now has a velocity, but the idea that it feels a force by changing frames is ridiculous so Einstein invents special relativity. My question is, is that really necessary? The magnetic field now also appears to be moving, so the difference in speeds between it and the particle is still zero, hence no need yet to move away from Galilean relativity. Is my thinking correct or am I missing something?
 
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pantheid said:
Is my thinking correct or am I missing something?

It is certainly incorrect. Firstly a magnetic field does not move in the sense that it has a speed. A magnetic field can propagate through electromagnetic waves but that is quite a different concept. What one can have is the source of the magnetic field moving with some speed.

Let's say we have a permanent magnet and a charged particle that are both stationary in a frame ##O##. We then boost to a frame ##O'## that is moving with respect to ##O## at some speed. Then yes in this frame the magnet and the charged particle are still at rest with respect to one another. However the ##v## that appears in the Lorentz force law ##\vec{F} = q(\vec{v} \times \vec{B})## is not the velocity of the charged particle relative to the source of the magnetic field. It is the velocity of the particle relative to the chosen reference frame.

Hence ##\vec{F}\neq 0## in ##O'## whereas ##\vec{F} = 0## in ##O## if one naively follows Galilean relativity since the particle has some speed with respect to ##O'##.
 
WannabeNewton said:
the vv that appears in the Lorentz force law F⃗ =q(v⃗ ×B⃗ )\vec{F} = q(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}) is not the velocity of the charged particle relative to the source of the magnetic field. It is the velocity of the particle relative to the chosen reference frame.

Not only that, the ##\vec{B}## that appears in the law is also relative to the chosen reference frame; it changes if you change frames. Also, if the field in frame ##O## is a pure magnetic field, then in frame ##O'## there will be an electric field as well, so the force law has to include a term for that. All this ensures that the actual force felt by the object is invariant under changes of frame--all that changes is how we describe the fields that cause the force.
 
pantheid said:
Here's my problem. We know the magnetic force is just F=q(v x B). If we have a stationary charged particle in a magnetic field, it will not feel a force.

If you have a stationary charged particle, and E=0, it will not feel a force, regardless of the value of B. But you forgot to specify the part where E=0, I will assume that this was implied and that you didn't realize you needed to specify this explicitly.

If we change to a moving frame, the particle now has a velocity, but the idea that it feels a force by changing frames is ridiculous so Einstein invents special relativity. My question is, is that really necessary? The magnetic field now also appears to be moving, so the difference in speeds between it and the particle is still zero, hence no need yet to move away from Galilean relativity. Is my thinking correct or am I missing something?

If you happen to know how the E and B fields transform (either by the tensor equations, or the non-tensor version - see for example http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Classical_electromagnetism_and_special_relativity) you can compute what happens in the moving frame without solving Maxwell's equations again.

When you start with the E and B fields in your "rest frame" with ##\vec{E}=0## and ##\vec{B}= \vec{B_0}## (using the wiki notation), you'll find that the transformation law that takes E in the rest frame to E' in the primed (moving) frame, i.e. ##E'_{\perp} = \gamma \left( E_{\perp} + v \times \vec{B_0} \right)## gives you a non-zero value for the E field in the moving frame. This should cancel the vxB force, because if the force is zero in one frame it should be zero in all. But I haven't calculated the details.

Now we see the need to specify E - and we note that the value of E is not the same in the moving and stationary frame in general and in this problem in particular.
 

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