Normalized basis when taking inner product

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the necessity of normalizing basis vectors before taking the inner product of a vector represented in different bases, specifically in the context of polar coordinates in \(\mathbb{R}^2\). The conversation touches on theoretical implications and mathematical reasoning related to inner products and vector representation.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether both bases need to be normalized before taking the inner product, noting different results when using normalized versus non-normalized polar bases.
  • Another participant asserts that normalization of basis vectors is not necessary for the inner product to be defined.
  • A later reply emphasizes the importance of specifying another vector when discussing the inner product, suggesting that the original post may have lacked clarity.
  • Further clarification is provided that the inner product discussed refers to a vector with itself, and a link to additional resources is shared.
  • Another participant concludes that using unit vectors does not affect numerical quantities but serves to provide direction.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the necessity of normalization for basis vectors in the context of inner products, indicating that the discussion remains unresolved with competing perspectives.

Contextual Notes

Some assumptions about the definitions of inner products and the implications of using normalized versus non-normalized bases are not fully explored, leaving room for further clarification.

kent davidge
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Consider that a vector can be represented in two different basis. My question is do we need to normalize both basis before taking the inner product?

What motivates this question is because I found out that the inner product of a vector having components ##a,b## in the normalized polar basis of ##\mathbb{R}^2## will be ##a^2 + b^2## whereas it will be ##r^2(a^2 + b^2)## if the basis is not normalized.
 
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kent davidge said:
Consider that a vector can be represented in two different basis. My question is do we need to normalize both basis before taking the inner product?
No. The vectors in a basis don't have to be normalized (i.e., of unit length).
 
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Mark44 said:
No. The vectors in a basis don't have to be normalized (i.e., of unit length).
Hi Mark. Please consider re reading my post after I added context to my question.
 
kent davidge said:
What motivates this question is because I found out that the inner product of a vector having components ##a,b## in the normalized polar basis of ##\mathbb{R}^2## will be ##a^2 + b^2## whereas it will be ##r^2(a^2 + b^2)## if the basis is not normalized.
Here's a link to a page I found that might be helpful -- http://www.math.tamu.edu/~fulling/coalweb/polar.htm

BTW, saying "inner product of a vector" with no mention of another vector is meaningless. In this case, I think you meant the inner product of a vector with itself.
 
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Mark44 said:
BTW, saying "inner product of a vector" with no mention of another vector is meaningless. In this case, I think you meant the inner product of a vector with itself
That's what I meant
Mark44 said:
Here's a link to a page I found that might be helpful -- http://www.math.tamu.edu/~fulling/coalweb/polar.htm
They don't specify the reasons for using unit polar vectors, but the conclusion I draw from their example is that by using the unit vectors we are not affecting our numerical quantities, we merely use the vectors in order to get a direction, in this case.
 

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