Normalizing the Schrödinger Equation

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the normalization of the Schrödinger equation, specifically addressing how to prove that the initial condition of the wave function, psi(x,t-naught), can be used to satisfy normalization. The scope includes theoretical aspects of quantum mechanics and mathematical reasoning related to the properties of the wave function over time.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Technical explanation, Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asks how to prove that the initial condition of psi(x,t-naught) can satisfy normalization for the Schrödinger equation.
  • Another participant suggests that typically, one writes down the solution of the Schrödinger equation and computes the norm, noting that the norm is time independent.
  • A participant questions whether the goal is to prove that if \Psi(x,t) is normalized at t = 0, it remains normalized at later times.
  • A later reply confirms the intention to prove that \Psi(x,t) stays normalized if it is normalized at t = 0, indicating that the original poster has resolved their query but may return with further questions.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express varying levels of understanding regarding the normalization process and its implications over time, but there is no consensus on the proof itself or the specifics of the normalization process.

Contextual Notes

Some assumptions about the properties of the wave function and the implications of normalization over time are not fully explored, leaving open questions about the conditions under which normalization holds.

Desh627
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Hello all,

How do you prove that, for the normalization of the Schrödinger equation, you can plug in the initial condition of psi(x,t-naught) that will satisfy normalization?
 
Last edited:
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Hi Desh627, perhaps you should be more specific as in what you meant.

Normally one writes down the solution of the Schrödinger equation, then finds the normalisation by computing the norm right?

If I remember correctly, the norm is time independent?
 
Are you trying to prove that if [itex]\Psi(x,t)[/itex] is normalized at t = 0, it stays normalized at later times?
 
jtbell said:
Are you trying to prove that if [itex]\Psi(x,t)[/itex] is normalized at t = 0, it stays normalized at later times?

Precisely.

Actually, I figured it out, but thanks anyway man. I may be back here later today with more questions.
 

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