Now, can you prove this limit using the Limit Definition of Continuity

  • Thread starter Thread starter Jameson
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The limit of the expression \(\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} x^4 \cos \left( \frac{1}{x^2} \right)\) is proven to be 0 using the Squeeze Theorem. The discussion emphasizes the importance of understanding the bounds of the cosine function, specifically that \(-1 \le \cos \left( \frac{1}{x^2} \right) \le 1\). By applying this inequality and manipulating it with \(x^4\), the limit can be established definitively as 0 when \(x\) approaches 0. The solution provided by member Sudharaka illustrates this process clearly.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of limits in calculus
  • Familiarity with the Squeeze Theorem
  • Basic knowledge of trigonometric functions, specifically cosine
  • Ability to manipulate inequalities
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Squeeze Theorem in detail, including its applications in limit proofs
  • Explore the properties of trigonometric functions and their bounds
  • Practice solving limits involving trigonometric expressions
  • Review graphical methods for estimating limits and their limitations
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for students studying pre-calculus or introductory calculus, particularly those learning about limits and the application of the Squeeze Theorem. It is also useful for educators seeking to explain these concepts effectively.

Jameson
Insights Author
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
4,533
Reaction score
13
**Note - this for young students who might be studying pre-calculus or just beginning calculus and haven't been presented with the concept of upper/lower bounds and how they are useful in working with trig expressions.**

Consider [math]\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} x^4 \cos \left( \frac{1}{x^2} \right)[/math].

You can easily graph this and visually deduce that the answer is 0, which it is. Along the same lines you could make a table of (x,y) points and choose x's that get closer and closer to x=0 and again conclude that the limit is most likely 0. Although these two techniques might be useful on a test where you're stuck on a tricky limit, the answer can be found in a far more certain way.

So this week's question is prove that the above limit is 0.

Hint:
[sp]Start with the fact that [math]-1 \le \cos(x) \le 1[/math] with the goal of manipulating this somehow to where the middle term becomes the limit we want to find. Note that in the above, $\cos(x)$ cannot be smaller than -1 or larger than 1 for any value of x. This is true even if "x" is something more complicated. If you can't see how this applies in this problem, see hint 2.[/sp]

Hint 2:
[sp][math] -1 \le \cos \left( \frac{1}{x^2} \right) \le 1[/math] Now try manipulating this but make sure to do the same operation to all of the terms so it remains true, and remember that inequalities are not the same as equations and you must always keep positives and negatives in mind. [/sp]
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Congratulations to the following members for their correct solutions:

1) Sudharaka

Solution (from Sudharaka):

[sp] \[-1 \le \cos \left( \frac{1}{x^2} \right) \le 1\]

Since \(x^4\geq 0\) we have,

\[\Rightarrow -x^4\le x^4 \cos \left( \frac{1}{x^2} \right) \le x^4\]

When \(x\rightarrow 0\) by the Squeeze Theorem (Squeeze theorem - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia) we get,

\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} x^4 \cos \left( \frac{1}{x^2} \right)=0\][/sp]
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
4K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
1K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
Replies
15
Views
8K