On commuting of position and momentum operators

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the commutation relations between position and momentum operators in quantum mechanics, specifically for the y and z components. The original poster is tasked with demonstrating that the commutators [\hat{y},\hat{p}_y] and [\hat{z},\hat{p}_z] equal iħ times the identity operator.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to apply the definition of commutators and explores the implications of expressing operators in terms of their action on wave functions. They question how to relate their findings to the identity operator.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, offering hints and clarifications regarding the nature of operators and their action on wave functions. There is a recognition of the need to express results in terms of operators, and some guidance has been provided on how to approach the relationship with the identity operator.

Contextual Notes

Participants are discussing the mathematical properties of operators in quantum mechanics, including the use of the product rule and the implications of operator actions on wave functions. There is an acknowledgment of previous learning in related topics such as group theory.

dingo_d
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Homework Statement



I have to proove:

[tex][\hat{y},\hat{p}_y]=[\hat{z},\hat{p}_z]=i\hbar\hat{I}[/tex]


Homework Equations



[tex][\hat{A},\hat{B}]=\hat{A}\hat{B}-\hat{B}\hat{A}[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



Ok so I know that

[tex][\hat{y},\hat{p}_y]=\hat{y}\hat{p}_y-\hat{p}_y\hat{y}=y\left(-i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial y}\right)-(-i\hbar\frac{\partial y}{\partial y})=i\hbar[/tex]

Analogus for z component. But how to show that it's [tex]i\hbar\hat{I}[/tex]?

Since they're operators they can be expressed in component form - they correspond to some kind of matrix, right?

I don't see how to get that [tex]\hat{I}[/tex] :\
 
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A few hints:

1. Remember that [,] is an operator and thus it should act on an arbitrary function, in QM its the wave function.

2. Remember that (d/dy)y f= f+ydf/dy (why?).
 
Ok so I can set a wave function [tex]\psi (x)[/tex] and say: [tex]\psi (x)=\langle x|\psi\rangle[/tex]. And I can use product rule.

So [tex][\hat{y},\hat{p}_y]\psi(x)=i\hbar\psi(x)[/tex], but how to relate that with identity operator? :\ I mean, acting with identity operator won't change my wave function...
 
dingo_d said:
Ok so I can set a wave function [tex]\psi (x)[/tex] and say: [tex]\psi (x)=\langle x|\psi\rangle[/tex]. And I can use product rule.

So [tex][\hat{y},\hat{p}_y]\psi(x)=i\hbar\psi(x)[/tex], but how to relate that with identity operator? :\ I mean, acting with identity operator won't change my wave function...

When you write

[tex][\hat{y},\hat{p}_y]\psi(x)=i\hbar\psi(x)[/tex]

that makes mathematical sense because the left and right-hand sides are both wavefunctions. If we want to write

[tex][\hat{y},\hat{p}_y]=?[/tex]

we have an operator on the left-hand side, so we should have an operator on the right-hand side. Since you already derived the result for the first equation, just note that it is equivalent to

[tex][\hat{y},\hat{p}_y]\psi(x)=i\hbar \hat{I}\psi(x)[/tex]

and you will have the correct value for the operator statement.
 
I see, it's like when I have [tex]\vec{F}=m\vec{a}[/tex] - if I have a vector on the one side I must have vector on the other side...

(we said sth about it on my group theory class, but as a side note...)
 

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