Orthogonal Complement to the Kernel of a Linear Transformation

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the orthogonal complement to the kernel of a linear transformation, specifically in the context of a space defined by a matrix equation involving a vector. Participants explore the mathematical characterization of this space and its orthogonal complement, raising questions about the correctness of certain assumptions and calculations.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes a characterization of the space S defined by the equation A(x-y) = 0 and attempts to derive its orthogonal complement.
  • Another participant suggests that the equivalence relation used in defining S may not appropriately account for the vector y, indicating a potential oversight in the initial formulation.
  • A third participant challenges the initial description of S, asserting that it should explicitly depend on y, suggesting that S is actually the set y + ker(A).
  • A later reply introduces a mapping T defined as T(x) = A(x-y), suggesting that S can be viewed as the kernel of this mapping.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express disagreement regarding the characterization of the space S and its dependence on the vector y. There is no consensus on the correct formulation or the implications of the orthogonal complement in this context.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight potential limitations in the initial assumptions, particularly regarding the treatment of the vector y and the nature of the equivalence classes involved. The discussion remains open regarding the implications of reflexivity in the context of orthogonal complements.

Kreizhn
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Hey all,

I'm trying to find an orthogonal complement (under the standard inner product) to a space, and I think I've found the result mathematically. Unfortunately, when I apply the result to a toy example it seems to fail.

Assume that A \in M_{m\times n}(\mathbb R^n), y \in \mathbb R^n and define the space S = \left\{ x \in \mathbb R^n : A(x-y) = 0 \right\}. My goal is to characterize S^\perp.

I performed the following calculation

\begin{align*}<br /> S &amp;= \left\{ x \in \mathbb R^n : A(x-y) = 0 \right\} \\<br /> &amp;= \left\{ x \in \mathbb R^n : x-y \in \ker A \right\} \\<br /> &amp;= \mathbb R^n/ \ker A<br /> \end{align*}<br />

where I've used the fact that x-y \in \ker A defines an equivalence relation to turn \mathbb R^n/\ker A into a quotient space. In particular, since \ker A is a closed linear subspace and \mathbb R^n is a Hilbert space in the standard inner product, we must have that

\mathbb R^n /\ker A \cong (\ker A )^\perp [/itex]<br /> and since the orthogonal complement is &quot;reflexive&quot; in finite dimensions, we conclude that<br /> \left( \mathbb R^n/\ker A \right)^\perp \cong \ker A<br /> <br /> However, this does not seem to produce a correct result. I&#039;ve checked my work and the only place I can possibly see an error is that even when the orthogonal complement is reflexive, perhaps<br /> A \cong B^\perp \not\Rightarrow A^\perp \cong B?<br /> <br /> Alternatively, I&#039;ve also calculated that<br /> S^\perp = \text{Row}(A) \cap \text{span}\{y\}<br /> but this is far less useful than a simple result. <br /> <br /> Anyway, I tried this on the toy example<br /> <br /> A = \begin{pmatrix} 1 &amp;amp; 0 &amp;amp; 1 \\ 0 &amp;amp; 1 &amp;amp; 1 \\ 1 &amp;amp; -1 &amp;amp; 0 \end{pmatrix}, y = \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 2 \\ 3 \end{pmatrix}<br /> <br /> Now \ker A = \left\{ (-t,t,t) : t \in \mathbb R \right\}. Choosing an arbitrary representation with t=1, we would get a point x \in S given by<br /> x = \begin{pmatrix} -1 \\ -1 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} + \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 2 \\ 3 \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \\ 4 \end{pmatrix}<br /> which is certainly in S since x-y \in \ker A. However, there is no nonzero t \in \mathbb R^n such that (0, 1, 4) \cdot(-t,-t,t) = 0 and so my result cannot be correct.<br /> <br /> Can anyone see where I went wrong?
 
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I think I may know what the problem is. Is it perhaps that \mathbb R^n/\ker A is the set of all equivalence classes under the kernel of A, but we want only equivalence under y?
 
Yeah your description for S is bunk. Obviously it needs to depend on y. S is the set y+ker(A)
 
You are assuming that y is fixed aren't you? So perhaps, define the map
T:R^{n} \rightarrow R^{m}, such that T(x)= A(x-y). Thus, your set S = kerT.
Vignon S. Oussa
 

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