- #1
mertcan
- 340
- 6
hi,initially I am aware that for continuous distributions, P(X=x) always equals zero, but when I look at some derivations as the attachment I see that for exponential variable they use exponential pdf when they want to find P(X1=x). My question is : if we say that for continuous distributions, P(X=x) always equals zero why P(X1=x) equals exponential pdf here why it is not 0 ?
Last edited: