- #1
iVenky
- 212
- 12
I can prove that the particular integral of sin(ax+b) is given by
[itex]\frac{1}{f(-a^{2})} sin(ax+b)[/itex]
That's not an issue but what happens if f(-a2) is 0 ?
I see that it is given by
[itex] x \frac{1}{f'(-a^{2})} sin(ax+b)[/itex]
but I can't prove this though I know to prove this for eaxThanks a lot :)
[itex]\frac{1}{f(-a^{2})} sin(ax+b)[/itex]
That's not an issue but what happens if f(-a2) is 0 ?
I see that it is given by
[itex] x \frac{1}{f'(-a^{2})} sin(ax+b)[/itex]
but I can't prove this though I know to prove this for eaxThanks a lot :)