I can prove that the particular integral of sin(ax+b) is given by(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[itex]\frac{1}{f(-a^{2})} sin(ax+b)[/itex]

That's not an issue but what happens if f(-a^{2}) is 0 ?

I see that it is given by

[itex] x \frac{1}{f'(-a^{2})} sin(ax+b)[/itex]

but I can't prove this though I know to prove this for e^{ax}

Thanks a lot :)

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# Particular integral of sin(ax+b)

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