Many authors of expositions of permutation groups are guilty of not explcity defining "disjoint cycles". Does your text give a definition? If not, your confusion is understandable.
"Orbits" are sets. Their elements are the things being permuted.
"Cycles" are special kinds of functions. A function is a special kind of "set of ordered pairs". Technically, the elements of cycles are ordered pairs. The two cycles denoted by (1,2) and (3,5) are each functions that map 4 to 4, so both cycles contain the ordered pair (4,4). So, as sets of ordered pairs, the cycles (1,2) and (3,5) are not "disjoint". However, the term "disjoint" has a special meaning in the theory of permutation groups. To say two cycles are "disjoint" refers to the fact that the two sets of symbols used to denote them are disjoint sets. So, in that sense, the cycles (1,2) and (3,5) are disjoint.
To describe a specific "orbit", you must give information that it is "the orbit of [such-and-such] under the function(s) [so-and-so]". If the set of objects being permuted is {1,2,3,4,5} then "the orbit of 3 under the cycle (1,2,3)" is the set {3,1,2} = {1,2,3}". By contrast, "the orbit of 4 under the cyle (1,2,3)" is the set {4}.
If you have an arbitrary function f(x) such as:
x ,f(x)
1 3
2,5
3,1
4,4
5,2
then talking about "the orbit of f(x)" is ambiguous. The following orbits are distinct sets:
"The orbit of 1 under the function f(x)" is the set {1,3}
"The orbit of 2 under the function f(x)" is the set {2,5}"
"The orbit of 4 under the function f(x) " is the set {4}
Your textbook makes the observation that the domain of f is the union of disjoint orbits:
{1,2,3,4,5} is the union of {1,3}, {2,5}, {4}
Your textbook says that each orbit can be associated with a unique cycle. For example {1,3} can be associated with the function c(x) given by:
x, c(x)
1,3
2,2
3,1
4,4
5,5
Under this association, you can speak of "the orbit associated with the cycle c(x)". How should we state the procedure for making the association formally? We might say "List the elements in the orbit in an arbitrary order and define the cycle to be the function that sets each element to the next one and the last element to the first".
The fact that we have associated an orbit {1,3} with a particular function c(x) doesn't invalidate the terminology that we use to describe an orbit as belonging to a particular element and a particular function.
"the orbit of 1 under c(x)" is {1,3} = {3,1}.
"the orbit of 2 under c(x)" is {2}
"the orbit of 3 under c(x)" is {3,1} = {1,3}
"the orbit of 4 under c(x)" is {4}
"the orbit of 5 under c(x) " is {5}
It is correct to think that there is a "natural" association between orbits and cycles, but stating this association is more complicated that thinking "an orbit is a cycle".
If you focus on the topic of permuting finite sets of things, you can lose track of what needs to be proved and what is "obvious" because we have good intuition for finite sets. Think for a moment about permutations of infinite sets (e.g. the set of all 1-to-1 mappings of the real numbers onto itself). If g(x) is such a function, could you show that its domain was a finite (or even countable) union of orbits? The difficulty of that question helps in understanding why claiming this is true for functions that permute finite sets does require some proof.