Perturbation: First order correction to particle-in-box eigenstates

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the first order correction to the ground state eigenstate of a particle in a box under a Dirac delta perturbation. The problem involves evaluating integrals related to the perturbation and understanding the implications of the delta function in the context of quantum mechanics.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to compute integrals involving sine functions and a delta function but encounters results that suggest the corrections are zero for both even and odd states. Some participants question the validity of the integration approach used, particularly the application of integration by parts.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, with some suggesting alternative methods to simplify the calculations. There is a recognition of the need to correctly interpret the delta function's role in the integral, and guidance has been offered to reconsider the approach taken by the original poster.

Contextual Notes

There appears to be confusion regarding the application of integration techniques and the properties of the delta function, which are critical to resolving the problem. The original poster's calculations are based on specific assumptions about the eigenstates and the perturbation's effects.

McCoy13
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First order correction to particle-in-box eigenstates for Dirac perturbation

Homework Statement


Calculate the first three nonzero terms in the expansion of the correction to the ground state \psi^{1}_{1} for a Dirac delta perturbation of strength alpha at a/2 (box from 0 to a).

Homework Equations


\psi^{1}_{n} = \sum_{m\neqn} \frac{\left\langle\psi^{0}_{m}\right|H&#039;\left|\psi^{0}_{n}\right\rangle}{E^{0}_{n}-E^{0}_{m}}\psi^{0}_{m}[/tex]<h2>The Attempt at a Solution</h2><br /> I started with m=2 and tried to computer the integral \left\langle\psi^{0}_{m}\right|H&amp;#039;\left|\psi^{0}_{n}\right\rangle by parts.<br /> <br /> Calculations:<br /> \frac{2}{a}\alpha\int^{a}_{0}sin(\frac{2 \pi x}{a})sin(\frac{\pi x}{a})\delta(x-\frac{a}{2})dx<br /> integration by parts<br /> \frac{2}{a}\alpha([sin(\frac{2 \pi x}{a})sin(\frac{\pi}{2})]^{a}_{0}-\frac{2\pi}{a}\int^{a}_{0}cos(\frac{2 \pi x}{a})dx)<br /> <br /> This clearly equals 0. Also, this equation indicates that the correction will be 0 for any m even.<br /> <br /> Trying m=3.<br /> \frac{2}{a}\alpha\int^{a}_{0}sin(\frac{\pi x 3}{a})sin(\frac{\pi x}{a})\delta(x-\frac{a}{2})dx<br /> integration by parts<br /> \frac{2}{a}\alpha([sin(\frac{\pi x 3}{a})sin(\frac{\pi}{2})]^{a}_{0}-\frac{3\pi}{a}\int^{a}_{0}cos(\frac{3 \pi x}{a})dx)<br /> <br /> However, this also is 0, and will be for any m odd.<br /> <br /> This clearly cannot be the correct result.
 
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It is not. What is the integral

\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}f(x) \delta(x-x_0)dx

?
 
f(x_{0})

In this case that gives:

sin(\frac{\pi}{2}) = 1

when taking

sin(\frac{\pi x}{a})\delta(x-\frac{a}{2})

to be the part that gets integrated in the integration by parts.
 
Forget "by parts" and make your life simple. Identify

<br /> f(x)=sin(\frac{\pi x 3}{a})sin(\frac{\pi x}{a})<br />

and see what you get.
 
Oh. That's easy. Thanks.

Just to confirm my answer, I've now got:

for m = 3

\frac{\frac{2}{a}\alpha\int^{a}_{0}sin(\frac{3 \pi x}{a})sin(\frac{\pi x}{a})\delta(x-\frac{a}{2})dx}{E^{(0)}_{1}-E^{(0)}_{3}}

= \frac{\frac{2}{a}\alpha sin(\frac{3 \pi}{2})sin(\frac{\pi}{2})}{E^{(0)}_{1}-E^{(0)}_{3}}}

= \frac{-2 \alpha}{a(E^{(0)}_{1}-E^{(0)}_{3})}

= \frac{-2 \alpha}{a(\frac{\pi^{2} h^{2}}{2ma^{2}} - \frac{9 \pi^{2} h^{2}}{2ma^{2}})}

= \frac{ma \alpha}{2 \pi h^{2}}

Where h actually stands for h-bar and m stands for mass (rather than the index).
 
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