Why is pi equal to 3.14159...?

  • Context: Undergrad 
  • Thread starter Thread starter Stephanus
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Pi Value
Join the discussion
Registration is free. Ask a follow-up in this thread, or start your own.
30 replies · 5K views
[Edit] OTHERS HAVE GIVEN THIS ANSWER, BUT I CAN'T DELETE IT.
There are trig functions that are known to equal π. Their series expansions are used to approximate π to the accuracy desired, but they also prove that the value of π is 3.14159...

For instance, knowing that π/2 = arcsin( 1 ) means that you can use the Taylor series of arcsin to prove the value of π to any accuracy you want. I don't know if this example is practical, but there are many other similar ways. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pi#Infinite_series