MHB Please help me find Fourier series mistake

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The discussion revolves around finding the Fourier sine series expansion of the Dirac delta function $\delta(x-a)$ in the interval (0,L). A key point of confusion is the use of the interval length in the coefficient formula, where the user believes it should be $\frac{L}{2}$ instead of $L$. The correct formula for the coefficients is indeed $\frac{2}{L} \int_0^L \delta(x-a) \sin\left(\frac{n \pi x}{L}\right) dx$, which reflects the properties of the delta function and the sine function. The user is reminded that the sine term's divisor remains $L$ because it corresponds to the full interval length, while the factor of 2 accounts for the symmetry in the sine function over the interval. Understanding this distinction clarifies the application of the Fourier series in this context.
ognik
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Find the Fourier sin series expansion of dirac delta function $\delta(x-a)$ in the half-interval (0,L), (0 < a < L):

Now $b_n = \frac{1}{L} \int_0^L f(x)sin \frac{n \pi x}{L}dx $ - but L should be $\frac{L}{2}$ for this exercise...

So I would get $ \frac{2}{L} \int_0^L f(x)sin \frac{n \pi x}{\frac{L}{2}}dx $ - but the book shows $ \frac{2}{L} \int_0^L \delta(x-a)sin \frac{n \pi x}{L}dx $

I believed that the interval was $ \frac{2}{L}$ - what am I missing please?
 
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ognik said:
Find the Fourier sin series expansion of dirac delta function $\delta(x-a)$ in the half-interval (0,L), (0 < a < L):

Now $b_n = \frac{1}{L} \int_0^L f(x)sin \frac{n \pi x}{L}dx $

The formula for the coefficients $b_n$ is $$b_n=\frac{2}{L}\int_{0}^Lf(x)\sin \left (\frac{n\pi x}{L}\right )dx$$
 
My question is - why does the formula use $\frac{L}{2}$ as the interval before the integration $(\frac{2}{L} \int ...)$ but not also use $\frac{L}{2}$ in divisor of the sin term which I understand is also the interval?

(Given that I am writing the exam in a couple of hours, a quick reply would be appreciated :-) )
 
It is related to the fact that for an even function $g(x)$ it holds that

$$ \int_{-a}^a g({x}) d x = 2 \int_0^a g ({x}) d x$$
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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