Malamala
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Hello! I am a bit confused about what power spectral density (PSD) is in the context of a laser. In particular, I came across this paper. In Fig. 1 they show PSD vs frequency. As far as I understand, PSD is just the square of the FT spectrum of a laser frequency/phase as a function of time. Later in the paper (Fig. 2), they mention that a way to get a plot as in Fig. 1 is to make a self-heterodyne measurement. However, in other papers (and this was my understanding so far, too), doing a self heterodyne would give you a spectrum with a Lorentzian/Gaussian lineshape, from which you can directly get the linewidth of the laser (e.g. this paper, Fig. 2). My confusion is in the fact that the 2 plots appear to be obtained the same way (self-heterodyne method), they both show PSD vs frequency, yet they look so vastly different. The first one shows a 1/f noise followed by white noise at high frequencies, while the second one has a Lorentzian shape or some other weirder shape depending on the length difference between the 2 optical fibers.
Is the length difference the only difference between them, or am I missing something else? In the first paper they use 20 m difference, while in the second paper the fibers difference is on the order of 1 km. And if that is the case, I have a second question. It seems like the plot in the first paper gives you more information than the second one. The second one basically gives you just the laser linewidth, but the first one can be used to get the laser linewidth (e.g. using the beta-line method described there), but you can get further insight, too (e.g. what bandwidth would you need for a servo to suppress the 1/f noise). If that is the case, why are many people using a large fiber difference between the 2 arms for getting the laser linewidth (I know from experience, as everyone I talked to mentioned the second method, of using fibers of 1-10 km difference for linewidth measurements). What advantage does the second method gives, as in my naive understanding the first method is better from all points of view (more info provided about the laser and cheaper, shorter optical fibers). Thank you!
Is the length difference the only difference between them, or am I missing something else? In the first paper they use 20 m difference, while in the second paper the fibers difference is on the order of 1 km. And if that is the case, I have a second question. It seems like the plot in the first paper gives you more information than the second one. The second one basically gives you just the laser linewidth, but the first one can be used to get the laser linewidth (e.g. using the beta-line method described there), but you can get further insight, too (e.g. what bandwidth would you need for a servo to suppress the 1/f noise). If that is the case, why are many people using a large fiber difference between the 2 arms for getting the laser linewidth (I know from experience, as everyone I talked to mentioned the second method, of using fibers of 1-10 km difference for linewidth measurements). What advantage does the second method gives, as in my naive understanding the first method is better from all points of view (more info provided about the laser and cheaper, shorter optical fibers). Thank you!