Probability of 40-Difference Heads/Tails After 1000 Coin Tosses

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the probability of achieving a difference of 40 between heads and tails after 1000 coin tosses. Participants explore the mathematical formulation of the problem and its relation to random walks.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asks about the probability of having at least one instance of a 40-difference between heads and tails in 1000 tosses.
  • Another participant inquires about the arithmetic expression of the problem in terms of the number of heads (n) and tails (m).
  • A different participant suggests that the problem can be framed as a random walk with a barrier, referencing standard probability texts for further reading.
  • One participant expresses confusion about calculating the probability dynamically throughout the tosses, proposing a product involving binomial probabilities but uncertain about its correctness.
  • The same participant estimates a probability of 1 - 0.126 for observing a difference of 40 during the tosses, though this estimation is not verified by others.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is no consensus on the method to calculate the probability or the correctness of the proposed approaches. Multiple competing views and uncertainties remain in the discussion.

Contextual Notes

Participants have not fully defined the assumptions underlying their calculations, and there are unresolved mathematical steps in the proposed methods.

alpignolo
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If I throw 1000 times a coin what is the probability to have at least one time a difference between heads and tails of 40.
thank you for yours help
 
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If n is the number of heads, m is the number of tails, how would you express your question arithmetically?
 
The problem you stated is an example of a random walk with one barrier problem. You can find a discussion in any standard probability text. For example Feller (Vol I) is a very good, although old test.
 
I'm sorry but I don't see the solution, It would be easy if I have to stimate the probability after n flip but I have to calculate it dinamically trough the n flips.
I thougt to make tehe product from 40 to n-40 of (1-Bin(0.5)) but i don't know if is right.
With 1000 flip --> p=1-0.126 to see a difference of 40 during the test

Thank you
 

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