Probability of Particle in Box: Changing w/ Increasing n

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion centers around the probability of finding a particle in an infinite potential well as the quantum number \( n \) increases. Participants explore how the probability density changes with different values of \( n \) and analyze the maxima of the probability density function.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the calculation of probability densities for various quantum states, attempting to identify patterns in the locations of maxima as \( n \) changes. Questions arise regarding the determination of maxima and the implications of the quantum number \( n \) on the probability distribution.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants sharing their calculations and observations. Some guidance has been offered regarding sketching probability densities and identifying maxima, but no consensus has been reached on a general formula or method for determining the maxima across different states.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working within the constraints of homework rules, focusing on conceptual understanding rather than deriving complete solutions. There is an emphasis on exploring the behavior of the probability densities without resolving into definitive conclusions.

LagrangeEuler
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Homework Statement


Particle is put in into the infinity potential well. How the probability of finding particle between different maxima of probability density is changing by increasing of ##n##?

Homework Equations


##\psi_n(x)=\sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}\sin \frac{n\pi x}{a}##
##E_n=\frac{n^2\pi^2\hbar^2}{2ma^2}##


The Attempt at a Solution


##\frac{d}{dx}|\psi_n(x)|^2=\frac{1}{a}\frac{2n\pi}{a}\sin\frac{2n\pi x}{a}=0##
so
##\frac{2n\pi x}{a}=k\pi##
From that ##x=\frac{ka}{2n}##.
To bi maximum
##\cos \frac{2n\pi x}{a}<0##.
Right?
What is easiest way to solve this?
 
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Write out the probability calculation for n=1,2,3 ... and spot the pattern.
 
For ##n=1## I get that ##\frac{d}{dx}\psi_1^2(x)=0## for ##x=\frac{ka}{2}##. How I now that ##k=1?##. If I take second derivative I get ##\frac{d}{dx}\psi_1^2(x)=\frac{4\pi^2}{a^3}\cos \frac{2\pi x}{a}##. If ##k=0##, ##x=0## and ##cos(0)=1>0##, so ##\psi_1(x=0)## is minimum. For ##k=1##, ##x=\frac{a}{2}## and ##cos(\pi)=-1<0## so for ##x=\frac{a}{2}## function has maximum. For ##k=2##, ##x=a## function again has minimum.

For ##n=2## I get that ##\frac{d}{dx}\psi_2^2(x)=0## lead to ##x=\frac{k}{4}a##. So I have five possibilities ##k=0,1,2,3,4##. Two maxima are for ##k=1## and ##k=3##.

For ##n=3## seven possibilities ##k=0,1,2,3,4,5,6##. Three maxima are for ##k=1,k=3,k=5##.

But I still don't have real generalisation. I have only behaviour. I see that the all maxima are for odd number ##k##.

Is there any other easier way to find this?
 
You are overthinking it:
- just sketch the probability densities for the first 3-4 energy levels, what sort of function are they?

- mark in two adjacent maxima for each and shade the area between them that you need to calculate.
Make a note of what the x values are (hint: try substituting ##\theta=kx## - what are the values of ##\theta## going to be for the first two maxima?)
 

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