Your method is not correct. Start from the inequality you supposed to be true (for n=k) and transform it till you arrive to the desired form. You started from the case n=k+1 and went backwards. That is wrong. ehild
It might help you to note that
[tex]\frac{1}{(1+r)^n}\le \frac{1}{1+ rn}[/tex]
is exactly the same as
[tex]1+ rn\le (1+ r)^n[/tex]
so you don't have to worry about the fractions.
the second line from the end looks incorrect.
[itex]\frac{1}{k\cdot r^2} \le 0 \Leftrightarrow k<0, r\ne 0[/itex]
why won't you try to attack it from another aspect. for example,
[itex]p_1>p2>0 \rightarrow \frac{1}{p_2}>\frac{1}{p_1}[/itex]