Proof of a linear operator acting on an inverse of a group element

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a statement related to linear transformations and group elements, specifically the relationship between a linear operator acting on an inverse of a group element and the operator acting on the element itself. The scope includes mathematical reasoning and proofs within the context of group theory and linear algebra.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant seeks to prove that for a linear transformation D, the relationship D(g_{1}^{-1}) = [D(g_{1})]^{-1} holds for a group element g_{1} and its inverse g_{1}^{-1}.
  • Another participant suggests considering the property of D as a homomorphism and uses the identity D(g_1 g_1^{-1}) = D(g_1) D(g_1^{-1}) to explore the proof.
  • A participant questions the next steps after establishing that D(g_{1}g_{1}^{-1}) corresponds to D(E), where E is the identity element.
  • Further clarification is sought regarding the value of D(E), leading to the conclusion that D(E) = E, which is used to derive the relationship between D(g_{1}) and D(g_{1}^{-1}).

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants appear to agree on the initial steps of the proof and the properties of the linear transformation, but the discussion remains unresolved as to whether the conclusion D(g_{1}^{-1}) = [D(g_{1})]^{-1} is definitively proven.

Contextual Notes

The discussion does not fully resolve the mathematical steps needed to establish the proof, particularly in clarifying the implications of D as a homomorphism and the properties of the identity element in this context.

Dixanadu
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Hey guys!

Basically, I was wondering how to prove the following statement. I've seen it in the Hamermesh textbook without proof, so I wanted to know how you go about doing it.

Let's say you have a group element [itex]g_{1}[/itex], which has a corresponding inverse [itex]g_{1}^{-1}[/itex]. Let's also define a linear transformation D for this group element.

So what I am trying to prove is that

[itex]D(g_{1}^{-1}) = [D(g_{1})]^{-1}[/itex]

Can u guys point me in the right direction?

Thanks!
 
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By linear transformation do you mean group homomorphism? If so just consider
[tex]D(g_1 g_1^{-1}) = D(g_1) D(g_1^{-1})[/tex]
 
yes it is a homomorphism. But what u wrote in the previous message, where do I go from there? cos [itex]D(g_{1}g_{1}^{-1})[/itex] is just [itex]D(E)[/itex] where E is the identity, right? o.o
 
Yes, and what is D(E) equal to?
 
OHH I get it. Basically, because [itex]D(E) = E[/itex], we can say that

[itex]E = D(g_{1})D(g_{1}^{-1})[/itex]
Then by multiplying both sides on the left by [itex][D(g_{1})]^{-1}[/itex] we get

[itex][D(g_{1})]^{-1} = D(g_{1}^{-1})[/itex]...I think...
 

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