Proof of rational density using Dedekind cuts

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving the existence of a rational number q such that y < q < x using Dedekind cuts. The user M outlines their approach by associating cuts to real numbers x and y, concluding that since y < x, there exists a rational q in the interval (y, x). The conversation highlights the importance of understanding the properties of Dedekind cuts, particularly regarding the ordering of rational numbers and the absence of greatest elements in certain sets. The final consensus is that the proof is valid under various conditions of rationality for x and y.

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The Problem

Let x and y be real numbers such that y&lt;x, using the Dedekind cut construction of reals prove that there is always a rational q such that y&lt;q&lt;x

What I've done

Since I can associate a cut to every real number, let x^∗ be the cut associated to x and y^∗ the one associated with y.
Since y&lt;x \implies y^* \subsetneq x^* then \exists q \in \Bbb Q such that q \in x^* and q\not\in y^*. Next I associate a cut q^∗ to q. Now how can I deduce from there that q^* \subsetneq x^* and y^* \subsetneq q^*, thus proving y&lt;q&lt;x

Any help will be appreciated,
M.
 
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If you are simply asking if that is a valid proof, yes, it looks good to me.
 
Thank HallsofIvy for replying.
The thing is that my professor told me that its not immediate from what I previously wrote that q^* \subsetneq x^* and y^* \subsetneq q^* so I can't conclude solely on my argument y&lt;q&lt;x. But I can't see what I'm missing, I was hoping you guys would guide me towards finding that subtlety to complete the proof.
 
I'm assuming that in your definition of Dedekind cut, if ##q## is rational then ##q## is NOT an element of ##q^*## but rather is the smallest element of ##\mathbb{Q}\setminus q^*##. If you use the opposite convention, then adjust my argument below appropriately.

If ##x## and ##y## are irrational, then your proof is fine.

If ##x## and ##y## are rational, then you can simply choose ##q = (x+y)/2##.

If ##y## is irrational and ##x## is rational, then your proof is fine: ##q## cannot be ##x## because you chose ##q \in x^*## whereas ##x \not\in x^*##.

Finally, if ##y## is rational and ##x## is irrational, then your proof does not exclude the possibility that ##q=y##. In other words, ##q## might be the smallest element of ##x^* \setminus y^*##. But if this is the case, note that ##x^*## does not have a largest element, so you can simply replace ##q## with a larger rational in ##x^*##.
 
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Let the real numbers x and y be represented by cuts (X_1,X_2) and (Y_1,Y_2), where a cut (A,B) is a partition of \mathbb{Q} such that any element of A is less than any element of B, and A has no greatest element. To say that y &lt; x, is to say that Y_1 \subset X_1 by the ordering of cuts. Since this is a proper subset, we may find a rational p \in X_1 - Y_1. But since X_1 has no greatest element, we may find another rational q \in X_1-Y_1 such that q&gt;p. It is easily seen that its cut (Q_1,Q_2) is such that Y_1 \subset Q_1 \subset X_1, because if we let the cut (P_1,P_2) represent p, we have the following: Y_1 \subseteq P_1 \subset Q_1 \subset X_1, where the last inclusion is true because q cannot be the greatest element of X_1.
 
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Oh, now I get it. Thanks for the replies and the help guys, it was very helpful.
 

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