Proof: Operators with same expectation value

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the conditions under which two operators, \(\hat{A}\) and \(\hat{B}\), can be considered equal based on their expectation values in a given state \(\left|\psi\right\rangle\). Participants explore the implications of the equality \(\langle\psi|\hat{A}|\psi\rangle = \langle\psi|\hat{B}|\psi\rangle\) and whether this leads to the conclusion that \(\hat{A} = \hat{B}\), examining the dependency on the state of \(\psi\).

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether the equality of expectation values holds for every state, suggesting that the conclusion may not be universally applicable.
  • Another participant asserts that proving \(\hat{A} = \hat{B}\) depends on the state of \(\psi\) and notes that the equality of operators is not guaranteed by the equality of their expectation values for a single state.
  • A different participant emphasizes that having the equality of expectation values for one vector does not imply the operators are equal, indicating that more information is needed.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express disagreement regarding the implications of the equality of expectation values, with no consensus reached on whether \(\hat{A}\) can be concluded to equal \(\hat{B}\) based solely on the given condition.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight the dependence on the state \(\left|\psi\right\rangle\) and the limitations of the argument based on a single expectation value, suggesting that additional conditions or information may be necessary for a definitive conclusion.

FaradayCage
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Given some state [itex]\left|\psi\right\rangle[/itex], and two operators [itex]\hat{A}[/itex] and [itex]\hat{B}[/itex], how do you prove that if [itex]\langle\psi|\hat{A}|\psi\rangle = \langle\psi|\hat{B}| \psi\rangle[/itex] then [itex]\hat{A} = \hat{B}[/itex] ?
 
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Is it true for every state?
 
FaradayCage said:
Given some state [itex]\left|\psi\right\rangle[/itex], and two operators [itex]\hat{A}[/itex] and [itex]\hat{B}[/itex], how do you prove that if [itex]\langle\psi|\hat{A}|\psi\rangle = \langle\psi|\hat{B}| \psi\rangle[/itex] then [itex]\hat{A} = \hat{B}[/itex] ?

Proving [tex]\hat{A}[/tex] is the same as [tex]\hat{B}[/tex] depends on the state of [tex]\psi[/tex]. You've made some notation [tex]<\psi|\psi>[/tex] is a probability amplitude. Your operators are fine, but if they are equal, it depends on the state of [tex]|\psi>[/tex]. Note though [tex]\mathcal{O} \cdot x \ne x \cdot \mathcal{O}[/tex].
 
FaradayCage said:
Given some state [itex]\left|\psi\right\rangle[/itex], and two operators [itex]\hat{A}[/itex] and [itex]\hat{B}[/itex], how do you prove that if [itex]\langle\psi|\hat{A}|\psi\rangle = \langle\psi|\hat{B}| \psi\rangle[/itex] then [itex]\hat{A} = \hat{B}[/itex] ?

Well, you can't; you have the equality of the images for only one vector in the common domain. You must have much more than that, of course.
 

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