Proof Partial Derivative definition

  • Thread starter Jonnyquest
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  • #1

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Hello, i'm trying to proof the partial derivative definition , how do i proof it ??


@f/ @x = lim h-->0 lim [f(a +h, b) - f(a, b)] / h


If possible , i'd like to seen all the calculations

Best regards
 

Answers and Replies

  • #2
CompuChip
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If this is what you are trying to prove, then what is your definition of the partial derivative [tex]\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}[/tex]?
 
  • #3
Fredrik
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You don't prove a definition.
 
  • #4
Delta2
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erm unless u mean the easy derivation where u start by [tex]\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}=lim_{x->a}\frac{f(x,b)-f(a,b)}{x-a}[/tex]

you can use the function [tex]g(h)=a+h[/tex]

and replace x=g(h) since [tex](lim_{x->a}x)=a=(lim_{h->0}g(h))[/tex].
 
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  • #5
CompuChip
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Hello, i'm trying to proof the partial derivative definition
Ah, I missed that you are trying to prove the definition itself.

Well, that is very easy: by definition, it is true.
 
  • #6
It was my Math teacher who challenged me to proof that the definition is right.

But i don't how to doi it.

I already proof the simple derivative definition.

Thanks
 
  • #7
Fredrik
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It was my Math teacher who challenged me to proof that the definition is right.

But i don't how to doi it.
It can't be done, at least not without more information about what's considered "right".

Note that you never prove a definition. A definition is just a choice of what English word to use for a specific mathematical concept.
 
  • #8
HallsofIvy
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Perhaps your teacher meant this: suppose f(x, y) is, putatively, a function of x and y but does not, in fact, depend on y. Show that the partial derivative with respect to x is exactly the same, in this case, as the ordinary derivative (and that the partial derivative with respect to y is 0).
 
  • #9
CompuChip
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Or it can mean: prove that it satisfies the Leibniz ("chain") rule.
Or that is satisfies a product rule.
Or both.
Or something else entirely.

It's just guessing here what your teacher meant, so maybe you should ask him to clarify :)
 
  • #10
OK, i've just spoke with my teacher.
Now i've to proof that a function x^2 + y^2 is equal to 2x in order to x and by the definition ( limit ).

How do i do it ??

Thanks
Best Regards
 
  • #11
Fredrik
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Do you know the definition of the derivative? Do you know the definition of a limit of a function? Show us your attempt to use these definitions, and we'll try to help.

I assume that what you're asking is either

"prove that if f(x)=x2+y2, then f'(x)=2x"

or

"prove that if "f(x,y)=x2+y2, then f,1(x,y)=2x".

(The ",1" notation is what I use for the derivative of f with respect to the first variable). The solutions to these problems will look almost exactly the same.
 
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  • #12
Delta2
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By using the definition you gave at the first post instead of a we use x and instead of b we use y and we have:

[tex]\frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial x}=lim_{h->0}\frac{(x+h)^2+y^2-(x^2+y^2}{h}=lim_{h->0}\frac{(x+h)^2-x^2}{h}=lim_{h->0}\frac{(x+h+x)(x+h-x)}{h}=[/tex]
[tex]=lim_{h->0}\frac{(2x+h)h}{h}=lim_{h->0}(2x+h)=2x.[/tex]

Now fredric is gonna be angry like his avatar image if he sees i gave u the full solution so get it fast :)...But i have to say maybe i did more harm to you than help by giving you the full solution.
 
  • #13
Thanks Delta and Fredrik ....

I made a small mistake , when i did the indetermination 0/0. But when i saw the solution posted by Delta , i saw the error.

Thanks to you all.
 

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