woundedtiger4
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I know that f(A∩B) is not equal to f(A) ∩ f(B) but i don't know that where am i wrong in the following proof...:( can someone please give me an intuitive example?
Thank you sir.HallsofIvy said:In order to prove "[itex]X= Y[/itex]" you must prove both "[itex]X\subseteq Y[/itex]" and [itex]Y\subseteq X[/itex].
You want to prove that [itex]f(A\cap B)[/itex] is not equal to [itex]f(A)\cap f(B)[/itex] and your give proof shows only that [itex]f(A\cap B)\subseteq f(A)\cap f(B)[/itex].
So look for a counter example in which [itex]f(A)\cap f(B)[/itex] is NOT a subset of [itex]f(A\cap B)[/itex].
That is, find a function f and values p and q, p in A, q in B such that f(p)= f(q).