Proofs using the binomial theorem

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The discussion focuses on proving that the sum of the binomial coefficients multiplied by (-1) raised to the power of j equals zero, specifically ∑nj=0(-1)j(nCj)=0. The proof utilizes the binomial theorem by setting a=1 and b=-1, leading to the equation (1+(-1))^n=0. This simplifies to the left-hand side being equal to the sum of the binomial coefficients, confirming the statement. The original poster questions whether this method is the most effective or if mathematical induction would be a better approach. The conversation highlights the validity of the binomial theorem in proving the identity.
Keen94
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Homework Statement


Prove that nj=0(-1)j(nCj)=0

Homework Equations


Definition of binomial theorem.

The Attempt at a Solution


If n∈ℕ and 0≤ j < n then 0=nj=0(-1)j(nCj)
We know that if a,b∈ℝ and n∈ℕ then (a+b)n=∑nj=0(nCj)(an-jbj)

Let a=1 and b= -1 so that 0=(1+(-1))n=∑nj=0(nCj)(1n-j(-1)j)

LHS=∑nj=0(nCj)(1)(-1)j) since (1n-j)=+1

LHS=∑nj=0(-1)j(nCj)

Is this the best way to prove it or is the induction business better? Thanks in advance!
 
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that's how I would have done it
 
I tried to combine those 2 formulas but it didn't work. I tried using another case where there are 2 red balls and 2 blue balls only so when combining the formula I got ##\frac{(4-1)!}{2!2!}=\frac{3}{2}## which does not make sense. Is there any formula to calculate cyclic permutation of identical objects or I have to do it by listing all the possibilities? Thanks

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