Prove by Induction: cos(6\theta)+isin(6\theta)=(cos\theta +isin\theta )^6

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving the equation cos(6θ) + i sin(6θ) = (cos(θ) + i sin(θ))^6 for all θ using mathematical induction. The context includes the application of De Moivre's theorem and considerations regarding the nature of induction.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the validity of using induction for non-integer values and question the wording of the problem. Some suggest using Euler's formula and De Moivre's theorem as potential approaches, while others express uncertainty about the steps involved in the proof.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various interpretations of the problem being explored. Some participants have offered guidance on how to approach the proof, while others are questioning the assumptions and the formulation of the problem itself.

Contextual Notes

There are concerns about the appropriateness of using induction for all θ, as well as the clarity of the problem statement. Participants note that the question may be poorly worded, leading to confusion about the intended proof method.

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Homework Statement


Prove by induction [tex]cos(6\theta)+isin(6\theta)=(cos\theta +isin\theta )^6[/tex] for all [tex]\theta[/tex]

Homework Equations


by DeMoivres theorem, [tex](cos\theta +isin\theta )^n=cos(n\theta)+isin(n\theta)[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


Well when I first looked at this problem I thought there was an error in the question because from what I know, induction has a flaw in that it can only prove for integers, not ALL values.

Anyway, so I need to prove:

[tex]cos6(k+1)+isin6(k+1)=(cos(k+1)+isin(k+1)) ^6[/tex]

Any help would be appreciated :smile:
 
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I think you can use Euler's formula here: e^(ia) = cos(a) + i sin(a). You also need the fact that e^(ab) = (e^a)^b.
 
So
[tex]cos6(k+1)+isin6(k+1)=e^{i6(k+1)}=(e^{6i})^{k+1}=e^{6i}.(e^{6i})^k[/tex]

Sorry but I'm unsure what to do from here. And please correct me if I'm wrong.
 
Mentallic said:
So
[tex]cos6(k+1)+isin6(k+1)=e^{i6(k+1)}=(e^{6i})^{k+1}=e^{6i}.(e^{6i})^k[/tex]

Sorry but I'm unsure what to do from here. And please correct me if I'm wrong.
Try this instead.
[tex]cos6(k+1)+isin6(k+1)=e^{i6(k+1)}=(e^{i(k + 1)})^{6}[/tex]

Now you're almost there...
 
I think you may be misinterpreting the question here. I assume that you are supposed to start by showing [itex]cos(n\theta)+isin(n\theta)=(cos\theta +isin\theta )^n[/itex] for all [itex]\theta[/itex], and some positive integer [itex]n[/itex] (I'd use n=1 as your starting point) by expanding [itex](cos\theta +isin\theta )^k[/itex] and using the multiple angle trig identities. Then assuming it is true for [itex]n=k[/itex] show that it is true for [itex]n=k+1[/itex] and hence by induction that it is true for all n, including [itex]n=6[/itex]

Mark's method isn't really a proof by induction, since you are assuming that Euler's formula holds for all [itex]\theta[/itex].
 
gabbagabbahey said:
I think you may be misinterpreting the question here. I assume that you are supposed to start by showing [itex]cos(n\theta)+isin(n\theta)=(cos\theta +isin\theta )^n[/itex] for all [itex]\theta[/itex], and some positive integer [itex]n[/itex] (I'd use n=1 as your starting point) by expanding [itex](cos\theta +isin\theta )^k[/itex] and using the multiple angle trig identities. Then assuming it is true for [itex]n=k[/itex] show that it is true for [itex]n=k+1[/itex] and hence by induction that it is true for all n, including [itex]n=6[/itex]

Mark's method isn't really a proof by induction, since you are assuming that Euler's formula holds for all [itex]\theta[/itex].

It seemed odd to me, too, but I'm just going by what mentallic wrote in the first post in this thread:
Prove by induction [tex]cos(6\theta)+isin(6\theta)=(cos\theta +isin\theta )^6[/tex] for all theta.

and
Well when I first looked at this problem I thought there was an error in the question because from what I know, induction has a flaw in that it can only prove for integers, not ALL values.
 
It is a poorly worded question; they may as well have just asked to prove by induction that [itex](x)^6=x^6[/itex] for all x.
 
Well this is the only question I got wrong in that test (besides a couple sloppy errors). I was unsure how I would prove for all [tex]\theta[/tex] without using DeMoivres theorem, and at the same time, if I were to assume the theorem true, then... I have pretty much the same thing as what you said gabbagabbahey:
gabbagabbahey said:
It is a poorly worded question; they may as well have just asked to prove by induction that for all x.

So I instead went ahead and proved DeMoivres theorem [tex]cos(n\theta)+isin(n\theta)=(cos\theta+isin\theta)^n[/tex]
And thus, true for n=6 and I probably cheated here when I finished with the statement, hence true for all [tex]\theta[/tex].

Mark44 said:
Try this instead.
[tex]cos6(k+1)+isin6(k+1)=e^{i6(k+1)}=(e^{i(k + 1)})^{6}[/tex]

Now you're almost there...
Sorry Mark, but I was never taught Euler's method. We rather used the mod-arg form [tex]rcis\theta[/tex]. But I have heard that there is a clear relationship between these 2 forms, so if we could convert to the mod-arg form, I could proceed :smile:

gabbagabbahey said:
It is a poorly worded question; they may as well have just asked to prove by induction that [itex](x)^6=x^6[/itex] for all x.
If it is poorly worded, what should the question have been instead? Because this is exactly what we needed to answer.
 

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