Prove lim x->0 f(x) = 0, if there is a number B?

  • Thread starter Thread starter LilTaru
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that if there exists a number B such that |f(x)/x| ≤ B for all x ≠ 0, then lim x→0 f(x) = 0. Participants explore using the epsilon-delta definition of limits and the squeeze theorem to establish this conclusion. The key insight is that by setting δ = ε/B, one can demonstrate that |f(x)| < ε as x approaches 0, thereby confirming the limit. The application of the squeeze theorem is highlighted as an effective method for this proof.

PREREQUISITES
  • Epsilon-delta definition of limits
  • Squeeze theorem in calculus
  • Understanding of inequalities and their manipulation
  • Basic knowledge of limits and continuity
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the epsilon-delta definition of limits in detail
  • Review the squeeze theorem and its applications in limit proofs
  • Practice problems involving limits and inequalities
  • Explore advanced limit concepts such as one-sided limits and continuity
USEFUL FOR

Students studying calculus, particularly those focusing on limits and proofs, as well as educators looking for examples of limit proofs using the epsilon-delta definition and the squeeze theorem.

LilTaru
Messages
80
Reaction score
0
Prove lim x-->0 f(x) = 0, if there is a number B?

Homework Statement



Prove that if there is a number B such that |f(x)/x| <= B for all x # 0, then lim x-->0 f(x) = 0.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I don't understand how B comes into play in this question, or how I use it to prove the limit equals 0? I thought of using it in the epsilon-delta proof of a limit, but I don't know how that would work with it being |f(x)/x| <= B... We learned the pinching theorem earlier in the chapter and I thought that could help, but again I don't know where to begin! Help will be most appreciated!
 
Physics news on Phys.org


I don't know if this would work, but have you tried multiplying both sides by x and then taking the limit?
 


So, it would be -Bx < f(x) < Bx? I got that far in one of my many side attempts of solving... let's see if I can take it all the way to a full solution!
 


Well, what do the two outer sides approach as x approaches zero?
 


You need to prove that

\forall \epsilon&gt;0: \exists \delta&gt;0: \forall x: |x|&lt;\delta~\Rightarrow~|f(x)|&lt;\epsilon

You have given that |f(x)|&lt; B|x|. It seems you need to take \delta=\epsilon/B.
 


Why would you do all that, when you can just use the squeeze theorem?
 


I just like using the definition instead of theorems :smile:
 


Meh. I like using theorems because they make it easier. I don't like having to start from scratch every time I do a problem.
 


I think a light bulb went off in my head... hopefully! So using the squeeze theorem: since -Bx and Bx both approach zero as x approaches zero then f(x) also approaches zero! Making the lim x-->0 f(x) = 0? Hopefully this is correct because then it all actually makes sense :D!
 
  • #10


That seems correct, yeah.
 
  • #11


Awesome! Thank you very much! It makes a lot more sense now! :D
 
  • #12


No problem at all.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
4K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
961
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
15
Views
2K