Undergrad Prove Logical Equivalence of P->(Q or R)

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The discussion centers on proving the logical equivalence of P -> (Q or R) and (P -> Q) or (P -> R). Participants analyze the transformation of expressions and attempt to demonstrate the equivalence through logical steps. One user concludes that the expressions do not appear to be equivalent based on their manipulations. Another user corrects a mistake in the logical transformation, emphasizing that the second line should be written differently to align with the first. The conversation highlights the importance of accurate logical representation in proving equivalences.
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From the text it says (P -> Q) or (P -> R) is equivalent to P -> (Q or R)

I tried to see if this is true so I tried
(P \to Q) \lor (P \to R) \\<br /> (P \lor \neg Q) \lor (P \lor \neg R) \\<br /> P \lor \neg Q \lor \neg R \\<br /> P \lor \neg(Q \land R) \\<br /> P \to (Q \land R)
and
P \to (Q \lor R) \\<br /> P \lor \neg(Q \lor R ) \\<br /> P \lor (\neg Q \land \neg R) \\<br /> (P \lor \neg Q) \land (P \lor \neg R) \\<br /> (P \to Q) \land (P \to R)

From what I've done its seems like they're not equivalent ?
 
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The Subject said:
I tried
(P \to Q) \lor (P \to R) \\<br /> (P \lor \neg Q) \lor (P \lor \neg R)
The second line does not follow from the first.

I think what you meant to write for the second line was
$$(\neg P\vee Q)\vee (\neg P\vee R)$$
which is not the same thing.
 
andrewkirk said:
The second line does not follow from the first.

I think what you meant to write for the second line was
$$(\neg P\vee Q)\vee (\neg P\vee R)$$
which is not the same thing.
AHHHH thank you!
 
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